Jesus Christ is the Son of Man
 

How do you explain that Jesus Christ is the "Son of Man?"

He was made of a woman, fulfilling the first Messianic prophecy in genesis 3:15.

The term He most often used for Himself was 'Son of Man."

This was a reference to His humanity.

Son of man. That word man doesn't mean a male. It is refering to mankind. So through mary he was a son of mankind. Which made him fully man. Yet the Spirit in him Was God all mighty which made him fully God. He was one person with a dual nature. Divine nature and human nature.

Im not sure I understand the question.....why do I need to explain that Jesus is the Son of man? Or are you asking really "What does the term Son of Man mean?"?

I recently had a conversation with someone who didn't believe Jesus is the Son of Man.

then they don't believe the bible...what does the term son of man mean to them? Why don't they believe Jesus is the Son of man?

Hi or Shalom SHalom

Reason being as you suggested as Son of man being Neither male nor female is because of the following:

Only our Physical Being can be either male or Female however when GOD created the First Adam he became an Image after GOD breathing into him .For it is the SOUL being Neither Male nor Female the Image.It is the SOUL that Gets resurected.Our Physical Body Returns back unto the Ground.

You are Correct


sabellius1

Sabellius1,

Christ is the image of God and we are made in the image of God which is Christ. God in his foreknowledge of his future Son made Adam in that image.

We are going to be like Christ whose physical body was resurrected and did not suffer corruption. Our resurrection will be like His. We will have a new body, a spiritual body that cannot die.

Satan hated the thought of a MAN ruling over him, so he tempted Adam and his wife and they fell to his rule.

Christ's favourite title was "SON OF MAN". 85 verses use that title, as opposed to 46 verses using "Son of God".

The devils would never use it. Devils always said "Son of God", but NEVER "Son of man". Devils would even say "Jesus" (some think the devil cannot say thne name of "Jesus" - wrong: Mark 5:7; Acts 19:15), but never "son of man".

And the antichrist spirit will not confess Christ is come in the flesh. To think a MAN would rule over them is their biggest threat. But Chirst is both man and God and PRESENTLY rules over all at the right hand throne of power.

Jesus put it in the devil's face time and again. He said "MAN shall not live by bread alone," when the devil tempted Him to turn stone to bread.

:tiphat Bro. Blume, I agree with the words of your post, however, when I think of the term or phrase, Son of man, I am reminded of the writings found in Hebrews chapter 2, versus 14 through 18.

"Forasmuch then as the children are partakers of flesh and blood, he (referring to the eternal invisible spiritual entity we call God) also himself likewise took part of the same:...... for verily he took not on himself the nature of Angels: but he took on him the seed of Abraham. Wherefore in all things it behoved him to be made like unto his brethren...."

It is my belief, however, that when we become absorbed into discussions of this issue we often times lose sight of the greater question, which is to say, what was that aspect of the judgment of death which was so eternally devastating and utterly insurmountable, that it required God's manifestation in human flesh in order to cause his plan of redemption for mankind to become effective. In other words, why was it necessary for God to inhabit a human body, and undergo the experience of its death, for his plan of reconciliation to be effectuated?