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Praxeas 01-25-2009 03:09 PM

When "I" became a "Him"
 
Trinitarian argument is based on pronouns proving "person". It is their assertion there are three persons. It is Oneness basically that asserts One God became the Son and could therefore refer to God as a "he" as though God is someone other than the Son.

Zec 12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
Notice in this verse the speaker is "I" and says "they shall look upon ME, whom they have pierced"?

Then notice how the pronouns shift to the second person? And they shall mourn for him.

The First personal speaker became a second personal speaker in the same context.

mizpeh 01-25-2009 03:25 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 691009)
Trinitarian argument is based on pronouns proving "person". It is their assertion there are three persons. It is Oneness basically that asserts One God became the Son and could therefore refer to God as a "he" as though God is someone other than the Son.

Zec 12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
Notice in this verse the speaker is "I" and says "they shall look upon ME, whom they have pierced"?

Then notice how the pronouns shift to the second person? And they shall mourn for him.

The First personal speaker became a second personal speaker in the same context.

And all within one sentence...so what do you think? The entire verse seems to be prophetic otherwise how could Zechariah know that "they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn."

It's like having one subject and going from calling himself someone who is God to someone who is other than God. Prophecy is so hard to decipher!

Timmy 01-25-2009 03:42 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
From first person to third, you mean? "...shall mourn for him".

Praxeas 01-25-2009 03:44 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
YOU are right....YOU being a second person and HE being a third person :thumbsup

Praxeas 01-25-2009 03:44 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by mizpeh (Post 691019)
And all within one sentence...so what do you think? The entire verse seems to be prophetic otherwise how could Zechariah know that "they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn."

It's like having one subject and going from calling himself someone who is God to someone who is other than God. Prophecy is so hard to decipher!

So what did you think of my exegesis of Isaiah 6?

mizpeh 01-25-2009 03:55 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 691053)
So what did you think of my exegesis of Isaiah 6?

Can you post the link? I didn't have time to look at it this morning.

Praxeas 01-25-2009 04:05 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
http://www.christiandiscussionforums...d.php?t=151945

Especially near the end. First I pointed out the vision there with the son of man is speaking about the saints. The saints according to the context are the son of man in the vision. This is important because it shows how the Trinitarian mind works. They use eisegesis and read all these OT passages that way..

Then I took on Netmannas assertion that Isaiah 6 shows the Trinity.

rava61 01-25-2009 06:11 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
One of the greatest books that I have read thusfar has been: The Shack by William P. Young. His display of God was wonderful and so different.

RV

pelathais 01-25-2009 08:02 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 691009)
Trinitarian argument is based on pronouns proving "person". It is their assertion there are three persons. It is Oneness basically that asserts One God became the Son and could therefore refer to God as a "he" as though God is someone other than the Son.

Zec 12:10 And I will pour upon the house of David, and upon the inhabitants of Jerusalem, the spirit of grace and of supplications: and they shall look upon me whom they have pierced, and they shall mourn for him, as one mourneth for his only son, and shall be in bitterness for him, as one that is in bitterness for his firstborn.
Notice in this verse the speaker is "I" and says "they shall look upon ME, whom they have pierced"?

Then notice how the pronouns shift to the second person? And they shall mourn for him.

The First personal speaker became a second personal speaker in the same context.

It was on the direction and possession of pronouns in the Hebrew language when I dozed off in class... how is this carried over in the original?

nahkoe 01-25-2009 08:04 PM

Re: When "I" became a "Him"
 
Quote:

Originally Posted by pelathais (Post 691161)
It was on the direction and possession of pronouns in the Hebrew language when I dozed off in class... how is this carried over in the original?

And I just haven't learned enough yet to look at it and know. I'm curious too, what it says in Hebrew.


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