Originally Posted by triumphant1 (Post 227867)

Ok...I asked this on another thread to no avail.

The Oklahoma District has had a resolution in its official by-law manual that says something to the effect of, "The OK Dist prohibits the use of TV for the propagation of the kingdom of God." This has been a part of the district policy since the late 70's.

I know that a district cannot pass a bylaw that contradicts the manual such as: "Be it known that the ***** District allows the use of the titles Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as an acceptable mode of baptism and does not encourage the re-baptism of trinitarian Christians".

BUT....there is a reason the OK Dist passed a by-law prohibiting TV. At the time this by-law was passed there was already in place a national prohibition. So why would they bother--seeing that there is no other holiness issue or prohibition mentioned in the Ok district manual with the exception of yout camp guidelines...all other standard issues that are covered in the national manual find no companion resolution in the OK manual...

My question now: Does a district policy like a prohibition against the use of TV trump a national allowance if the said policy doesn't actually "contradict" the national one?

For instance: If the national manual says you MUST use TV then a district prohibition would be in contridiction. But since the national policy gives the option to use TV or not, would a District have the right to say, "No TV in this District?"

And is this in fact the reason the OK District set this policy 30 years ago just in case KP and MH won?

Can someone check this out that has some parlimentary friends in the Organization?

Originally Posted by triumphant1 (Post 227867)

Ok...I asked this on another thread to no avail.

The Oklahoma District has had a resolution in its official by-law manual that says something to the effect of, "The OK Dist prohibits the use of TV for the propagation of the kingdom of God." This has been a part of the district policy since the late 70's.

I know that a district cannot pass a bylaw that contradicts the manual such as: "Be it known that the ***** District allows the use of the titles Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as an acceptable mode of baptism and does not encourage the re-baptism of trinitarian Christians".

BUT....there is a reason the OK Dist passed a by-law prohibiting TV. At the time this by-law was passed there was already in place a national prohibition. So why would they bother--seeing that there is no other holiness issue or prohibition mentioned in the Ok district manual with the exception of yout camp guidelines...all other standard issues that are covered in the national manual find no companion resolution in the OK manual...

My question now: Does a district policy like a prohibition against the use of TV trump a national allowance if the said policy doesn't actually "contradict" the national one?

For instance: If the national manual says you MUST use TV then a district prohibition would be in contridiction. But since the national policy gives the option to use TV or not, would a District have the right to say, "No TV in this District?"

And is this in fact the reason the OK District set this policy 30 years ago just in case KP and MH won?

Can someone check this out that has some parlimentary friends in the Organization?

Originally Posted by triumphant1 (Post 227876)

One other question: If not, then would the OK District have to amend their policy as a result of a national yes vote?

Now that will be very interesting if that is the case....the OK District voting to rescend a 30 year district prohibition against the use of TV...

Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 227898)

I believe the Western Distrinct has taken an official stand against Video. This is why none of our official meetings are recorded on video or broadcast over the internet

Originally Posted by triumphant1 (Post 227867)

Ok...I asked this on another thread to no avail.

The Oklahoma District has had a resolution in its official by-law manual that says something to the effect of, "The OK Dist prohibits the use of TV for the propagation of the kingdom of God." This has been a part of the district policy since the late 70's.

I know that a district cannot pass a bylaw that contradicts the manual such as: "Be it known that the ***** District allows the use of the titles Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as an acceptable mode of baptism and does not encourage the re-baptism of trinitarian Christians".

BUT....there is a reason the OK Dist passed a by-law prohibiting TV. At the time this by-law was passed there was already in place a national prohibition. So why would they bother--seeing that there is no other holiness issue or prohibition mentioned in the Ok district manual with the exception of yout camp guidelines...all other standard issues that are covered in the national manual find no companion resolution in the OK manual...

My question now: Does a district policy like a prohibition against the use of TV trump a national allowance if the said policy doesn't actually "contradict" the national one?

For instance: If the national manual says you MUST use TV then a district prohibition would be in contridiction. But since the national policy gives the option to use TV or not, would a District have the right to say, "No TV in this District?"

And is this in fact the reason the OK District set this policy 30 years ago just in case KP and MH won?

Can someone check this out that has some parlimentary friends in the Organization?

Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 227898)

I believe the Western Distrinct has taken an official stand against Video. This is why none of our official meetings are recorded on video or broadcast over the internet

Originally Posted by The Closer (Post 227910)

Lets see, from what I have been able to see, you are not in the organization here in Oklahoma, so really it would not matter to you and really would be none of your business in any way. I am sure that you will have some kind of twisted logic that makes it your business, but when you sent in the card, then the business of the Oklahoma District became none of yours, so what is the purpose of the question?

Originally Posted by The Closer (Post 227910)

Lets see, from what I have been able to see, you are not in the organization here in Oklahoma, so really it would not matter to you and really would be none of your business in any way. I am sure that you will have some kind of twisted logic that makes it your business, but when you sent in the card, then the business of the Oklahoma District became none of yours, so what is the purpose of the question?

Originally Posted by Praxeas (Post 227922)

Oh brother....get a life. Nobody has to be in an organization to ASk questions about it, they certainly don't need anyone else permission.