[mizpeh]

Originally Posted by Chan

The roles apply where the Bible applies them. To use the passage in question to claim (as feminists like Mizpeh do) that there are no gender roles (or even gender distinctions) for Christians while we're here in this present world, is the real foolishness and, worse, an attempt to conform the Bible to wicked worldly 21st century American culture.

Chan,

I'm not denying the role of the wife nor am I advocating unisex clothing. You use the word 'feminist' in a derogatory way. I don't consider myself to be a militant feminist nor do I even label myself as a feminist.

I have nothing to gain in arguing this passage of scripture nor the reason for this thread. I don't feel called to preach or teach. So I have no personal motive to try to prove women are called of God to preach the gospel.

Let me run this by you for your consideration. This is taken from an article written by Bruce Klein, a member of this forum. This is his translation of 1 Tim 2:11-14:

"Let a wife (woman, KJV) learn in tranquility (silence), in all subjection, But I do not allow (suffer) a wife (woman) to teach, nor to exercise authority over a husband (man), but to be in tranquility (silence). For Adam was formed first, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the wife (woman) being deceived has come to be in transgression."

The Greek word for man can be translated husband. The Greek word for woman can be translated wife. The person translating Greek to English is required to look at the Biblical context. Man, woman, and women should be replaced by husband, wife, and wives, because the context shows a husband and wife relationship - Adam and Eve. Since the context implies a husband and wife relationship, translators should respond by translating wife in place of woman and husband in place of man.

11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression. KJV

I think you can see if Paul's intent had to do with the husband - wife relationship then this passage is not saying a woman cannot be used by God to preach but that a woman should be in subjection to her husband.