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Originally Posted by good samaritan
John the Baptist commanded to bring fruit meet (acceptable) for repentance, while performing baptisms unto repentance. Therefore, baptism was a outward demonstration or production of repentance. Fruits are not the source, but grow out of the source.
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John's baptism was not just a baptism unto repentance, but was a baptism unto repentance for the remission of sins:
Mark 1:4 (KJV),
John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
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Jesus was baptized why? Did he have to be forgiven of sin?
Matthew 3:15
And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
“Becometh”
Thayer Lexicon:
1. to stand out, to be conspicuous, to be eminent
2. to be becoming, seemly, fit
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You answer your own question with the quotation of
Matthew 3:15. Christ's baptism was to fulfill all righteousness.
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Again, it is eminent that people who are “forgiven” or who are “gonna be forgiven” (whichever) to be baptized. We may not have identical understanding on this issue, but I think we are essentially on the same page. Baptism is necessary.
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Brother, I do not think we are on same page. I would not trust to believe a single person who hasn't been baptized, but made a confession of faith in Christ, is saved.
The body of sins must be destroyed. Short of that, the ledger is still in the red.