Quote:
Originally Posted by mizpeh
If the time of the Gentiles started with the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem then why wouldn't the rebirth of the nation of Israel in 1948 be the time that the Gentiles is fulfilled?
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Because the doctrine of Dispensationalism was created in the 1800s by a girl who had seizures who talked about these dreams she had about a "secret rapture".
This was spread by John Darby and Cyrus Schofield and included notes in the margins speaking of such and also summerized chapter headings adding their own interpretation to the passages.
The Scoefield Reference Bible was published by Oxford Press and the Bible Salesmen were allowed to keep 100% of the profits.
Due to the lack of seminaries for most Christians, the reference study Bible became an invaluable tool.
Simultaneously to this, wars and conflicts began to heat up and the Middle East began to take more of a center stage in peoples minds especially after being influenced by the new views and doctrines that were becoming evermore popular.
Several Bible schools in the US adopted these views and began pumping out pastors who further spread the belief and people began reading their Bibles along with their newspapers.
I said all that to say this, if the pre trib Rapture doctrine can be traced to its specific origin after not existing for nearly 2000 years to the 1800s, and that became a major influence in Palestine being renamed a modern Israel, how can we be certain that the "Israel" in modern day is is the Israel the God acknowledges?