Quote:
Originally Posted by Truthseeker
What parts was way off?
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"First, even if it is, it must have happened shortly after Revelation was written. After all, the angel of Revelation said this prophecy would happen soon, for the time was at hand (
Rev. 22:10). Therefore, it must have happened in the first century."
The problem is the underlying fundamental premise (quoted above). The conclusion drawn by the author places all the events of Revelation in the first century, which means the final judgment has occurred already, and therefore there is no basis to believe anyone after that time has any future whatsoever. If death, hell, and the lost have been destroyed in the lake of fire, if the great judgment has already happened, upon what basis can anyone claim there is any future judgment for anyone else? There is no basis for a belief in a future judgment that I can see?