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Old 06-15-2024, 07:25 AM
donfriesen1 donfriesen1 is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2020
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Re: John3 and Romans2: Part2

[QUOTE=Esaias;1615241]

2. Foreknowledge, as used by Scripture, specifically the apostle Paul, does not have regard to "God knowing in eternity past who specifically and individually would be saved and who not." Rather, it has regard to God's prior ordained destiny for Israel, that they would enter the new covenant:

Romans 8:28-30 KJV
And we know that all things work together for good to them that love God, to them who are the called according to his purpose. [29] For whom he did foreknow, he also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of his Son, that he might be the firstborn among many brethren. [30] Moreover whom he did predestinate, them he also called: and whom he called, them he also justified: and whom he justified, them he also glorified.

Here, those who are foreknown, are predestinated to be saved Christians. Who then are those whom God foreknew?

It is Israel which was foreknown of God. It is therefore Israel which is predestinated to be conformed to the image of Christ. These are they whom are said to be not only predestinated but called and glorified.

God's foreknowledge (in this context), and the doctrine of predestination, has to do with the NATIONAL STATUS and POSITION of the descendants of Jacob,
Predestination and foreknowledge are not about individual personal destinies, but the corporate destiny of Israel.

Because a blade of grass exists it does so by the will of God. The tree which became the Cross also existed by the will of God. No one would argue that one has much greater relevance than the other but the same will of God brings both equally. For God to foreknow the existence of any individual isn't any harder for him to do than to foreknow the existence of Israel. His omniscience makes each of equal effort. In the same way that the foreknowledge of God pre-determines the destiny of Israel it also pre-determines the individual. God's infinite resources show one as equally achievable as the other. Easy-peasy. I see no reason to discriminate between the lesser and the greater when it comes to the foreknowledge/pre-determinization. I'd be interested to hear any thoughts why this should be thought necessary, but perhaps on another thread?