[donfriesen1]

Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
Sort of. I see it as the best explanation until a better is offered.

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Therefore Joshua was only exaggerating, instead of agreeing with God?

How about: he was agreeing and exaggerating? That is how I see it. Do you see the difference?

Apparently, your take is that Joshua doesn't ever appear to contradict the Lord. Am I right?

The Bible gives the appearance that they, God and Jos, do not agree.

Your take sees no apparent contradiction between Jos21.43-45 and Jos13.1-6, right? Most readers see Jos 21.43 So the Lord gave to Israel all the land of which He had sworn to give to their fathers, and they took possession of it and dwelt in it. as apparently contradicting Jos13.1there remains very much land yet to be possessed.

At least someone, me, tries to offer an explanation of an apparent contradiction, while you apparently deny any explanation of a contradiction is needed.