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Old 02-18-2026, 07:11 PM
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Evang.Benincasa Evang.Benincasa is offline
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Re: Head Coverings Predated Christianity

Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
No OT command for head-covering is found which would have developed into a religious tradition. Can this statement be disproved?
Yes, Esaias, Votivesoul, and myself gave valid arguments. You haven't posted any scriptural or historical refutation. You are just doing the above, which is pontificating and posing more questions.



Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
If it was a tradition (tradition and custom have such great similarities in their definitions that they often are used inter-changeably.
Not where theology is concerned, we have the Apostle Paul telling his readers that they should follow him as he follows Christ. Paul's calling highlights the fact his authority and lifestyle are solely based on Jesus' authority. Therefore he makes this statement to preface what he will talk about in the chapter. Everything from nuts to bolts will be discussed as it comes from the leader, which Paul tells his readers, is Christ. They are to follow what he is about to lay out for them. Paul begins with this commending the saints and acknowledging their efforts to follow his teachings before addressing specific, serious problems in the following verses such as disorderly conduct, improper attire, and misuse of the Lord's Supper. We also should keep in mind that the Apostle Peter called Paul's writings of the exact same level and holy honor as the Old Testament. If Paul said it, then you can guarantee it was as good as it was inked down in the Old Testament, 2 Peter 3:15-16. Paul uses the word παράδοσις which is translated into the the King James English word ordinances. In Galatians 1:14 it is translated as the "tradition of the Elders." The traditions which the Apostle Paul will be dealing with in 1 Corinthians 11 will be those traditions of the Elders, which in his case are the Apostles.


Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
Does Paul, in 1Co11? NO.) then it was of human origin, not religious.
I know you've been beating the snot out of this tin drum. But, buddy boy, you haven't touch top side or bottom of any real solid proof. All you are posting is a bunch of rhetoric, and may bees. The Apostle Paul commended the Corinthians of their obeying all that he taught them. Which was the tradition of the Elders. Also, if we follow your premise, is everything else he teaches in 1 Corinthians 11 also of human origin? The Lord Supper? How one is to conduct themselves in dealing with that supper? Paul wasn't making suggestion, wasn't teaching Hellenized Judean diaspora and Roman Gentiles to be good citizens. If he was he totally blew it when it came to the subject of males in veils.



Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
Paul usually bases his ideas on the OT, the only Word of God he has.
Only the the Old Testament? Paul specifically points out to his Corinthian audience that he was proud of them because they obey all the traditions, ordinances and teachings/παράδοσις he handed down to them. You know, the "παράδοσις" which was from JESUS! Also the 12 APOSTLES! Old Testament only? Should we start calling you Yeshiva Don?


Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
He would not teach for NT doctrine things not having their origins in the only Word he loves.
Don, come on, how old are you?


Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
Therefore, his opening comments in 1Co11 can not be referring to a religious tradition of veiling.
Don, the Apostle Paul isn't just talking about head coverings in 1 Corinthians 11. Read the chapter.

Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
Can this be proved wrong?
Ah..yeah. From Esaias, Amanah, Votivesoul, myself. I don't know if anyone else tooK a swing at you. But we all pretty much put this puppy to bed. Remember you kicked this dead horse so bad that the admin closed the thread? But, hey, you love getting dragged around by your hair and so we are still talking about your candy stick the "IV"

Quote:
Originally Posted by donfriesen1 View Post
Showing the origin of a tradition by way of command would show this thought wrong.
Don, do you know how we study Greek, Aramaic, Hebrew, any ancient religious language? We try to find how they used it in everyday life during ancient times. We see how Paul's contemporaries used the word. Therefore we just don't use the word's dictionary meaning, but how the word is used in the context of the sentence, the paragraph, and how others used it in that time.
Also how the word was used in other areas in religious texts of that time. So, what we have is Paul teaching these Greek Judeans, and Roman Greeks the HANDED DOWN teachings of the Elders who would be the APOSTLES!
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