Quote:
Originally Posted by Eliseus
1. The scripture has its primary fulfillment in the first advent of Christ, obviously.
2. The PRINCIPLE illustrated by the prophecy however can be applied to the second advent as well. The prophecy takes up for consideration the thought that when the Lord comes, many would not be able to "stand" or "abide". Was it not also said that our Lord was "set for the fall and rising of many in Israel"? So the thought then is that the Lord's presence (parousia?) separates wheat from chaff. Other new testament passages speak of the separating in the end of the age, as well as a fiery "purging" of the wicked out of the kingdom.
So then the prophecy expresses a PRINCIPLE that may be applied to the second advent, in my opinion, although the prophecy itself refers primarily to the first advent.
3. Have you considered that the new testament writers understood prophetic fulfillment differently than we do today?
Read this: http://breusswane.blogspot.com/2007/...es-from-g.html |
I will take a look.
The reason I am asking is because I ran across what, I believe, may well be exactly what these scriptures are speaking of.
I will present my thoughts once I have finished my study.