Here's another interesting issue along these lines.
John 9:1-3
And as Jesus passed by, he saw a man which was blind from his birth. And his disciples asked him, saying, Master, who did sin, this man, or his parents, that he was born blind? Jesus answered, Neither hath this man sinned, nor his parents: but that the works of God should be made manifest in him.
The disciples bring up the possibility of a man sinning prior to his birth. Not saying they themselves believed it was possible but apparently the concept was known and promoted by somebody. How could the man have sinned prior to being born resulting in blindness? In the foreknowledge of God?
The Jews directly connected physical infirmity with sin. One of the reasons Christ healed the lame man he had just forgiven was to prove to his audience he did have the power to forgive.
I'll try to get back to this later. Good discussion, everyone.