Quote:
Originally Posted by Michael Phelps
Excellent summation, TR, thanks for taking the time to put it together.
However, my original question still stands - when Paul said "not all speak with tongues" how do we know for sure he was ONLY referring to the "gift of tongues"?
Especially since there are instances of folks receiving the Holy Ghost in the BOok of Acts and it is not stated that they spoke with tongues?
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How do we know? From the context.
In the book of Acts they are showing instances of
new believers receiving the gift of the Holy Spirit for the first time.
In the context of
1Cor 12 and 14, Paul was not speaking about the gift/baptism of the Holy Spirit.
He was speaking of to church folks about spiritual gifts. That is the critical difference.
The very chapter starts out by making that clear immediately:
1Now concerning spiritual gifts, brethren, I would not have you ignorant.
So he's clearly speaking of tongues in terms of being
the gift of tongues in this context, as he continues:
9To another faith by the same Spirit; to another the gifts of healing by the same Spirit;
10To another the working of miracles; to another prophecy; to another discerning of spirits; to another divers kinds of tongues; to another the interpretation of tongues:
11But all these worketh that one and the selfsame Spirit, dividing to every man severally as he will.
All the other things he speaks of in those verses
are referring to the gifts of the spirit. So why should we think otherwise when he mentions tongues in that context ?
Even as he continues in the chapter he is clearly still talking about spiritual gifts...
29Are all apostles? are all prophets? are all teachers? are all workers of miracles?
30Have all the gifts of healing? do all speak with tongues? do all interpret?
When he asks here: "do all speak with tongues?" (a rhetorical question whose answer is clearly "no"), the implication is obvious in this context. He is saying
not all have the gifts of healing, not all have the gift of prophecy, not all have the gift of tongues, not all have the gift of interpretation, etc.
This is the clear and natural understanding that follows the context of the whole chapter. I believe if a person approaches the text with a clear-headed mindset, without trying to insert their own meaning or preconceived notions into it, the passage's meaning becomes abundantly clear.
Paul is not saying "do all speak in tongues when they receive he baptism of the Spirit?" or even implying anything regarding that. He was addressing
the church at Corinth -- that is,
saved folks. Paul had already said to them: "by one Spirit we are baptized into one body" (v 13) , so it was understood they had already received the Holy Ghost, so this was a totally separate discussion .
There is nothing anywhere in those chapters (12-14) to indicate that Paul is referring to tongues as it relates to the gift/baptism of the Holy Spirit.