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Old 03-29-2009, 09:48 AM
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tbpew tbpew is offline
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Join Date: Mar 2007
Location: middle Atlantic region
Posts: 2,091
Re: No Pre-existing Son... Before Christ's Birth?

Quote:
Originally Posted by jaxfam6 View Post
WHY is this so hard for people to see and understand? and I do not mean just 'unsaved' people, I am talking true believers, repented, baptized, HG filled people.
I suppose you are postioning a view that asserts if:
A=B
and
B=C
then A=C.
{Note: this is referred to in mathematical circles as the Transitive Law of Equality}

If I am misunderstanding the source of your bewilderment... please accept my apologies.

If I am NOT misunderstanding your bewilderment (obviously my word not yours), then I offer this (for about the 7th time here on AFF)

The Word of God is NOT God.
The word of God is NOT a FULLY substitutionary equivalent of God.
God's word (like our own word) proceeds forth and comes from us (by our own will).
For A=B, B must be fully equivalent to A.
For B=C C must be fully equivalent to (able to be substituted for) B.

You can not make God's Word a substitutionary equivalent to God without making two God's; God himself and God's Word.

God did not become flesh.
God's word became flesh and dwelt among us.
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Wherefore, my beloved brethren, let every man be swift to hear, slow to speak, slow to wrath [James 1:19]
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