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Originally Posted by 1 God
Are you saying the audience of John 14 upon hearing "we" and "our" accepted it as "me" and "myself" or did that understanding of the passage come many centuries later? |
If Jesus identified Himself as - "My Father and I are One" and "when you have seen Me, you have seen the Father", why are we not having the mind of the Apostles?
What about Thomas, "John20:27 Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing. (28) And Thomas answered and said unto him,
My Lord and my God.(29) Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed:
blessed are they that have not seen, and yet have believed.
We use terminology the same as the Apostles - Praise God! Thank you, Jesus! Holy Spirit, move!" We know this is God all along.
The terminology is unity, because it is one. Paul "never" intended for his audience to think God the Father and the Lord Jesus were "not" the same being. He wanted them to see that God was our all in all in every action He took.
Otherwise, we are pretending to be Oneness, but acting like we are trying to prove a Trinitarian stance all the while, IMO. It looks like confusion to me. Let's be Thomas, My Lord and my God!