It is interesting that none of the folks who have visited this thread over the last day or so, have opted not to take up the challenge and answer the question, “What is a (the) sound biblical definition of a sin?” It is a lot like asking a bunch of Bible teachers to explain what the gospel is that Jesus and the apostles preached throughout the country, or what is the biblical difference between the gospel of the Kingdom of Heaven and the Kingdom of God. These are not trick questions.
So, what is biblical sin? Clean, clear, and without controversy, the answer is: “For as by one man’s disobedience [Adam] many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one [Jesus] shall many be made righteous. Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound: That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.” Ro 5:19-21 PLUS “Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law:
for sin is the transgression of the law. “
1Jo 3:4. There we have it. The purpose of the Law and its relationship to sin.
Now, if there is no longer any law that we are held accountable to, as some teach, then we are free from its judgment, “Because the law worketh wrath: for
where no law is, there is no transgression.” Ro 4:15
We can dance around these simple declarations all we want, but unless we physically remove them from the Bible, they stand as a witness against several doctrines found in many churches. If the Law of God was truly done away with at Calvary as some claim, then without the Law there can be no transgression against the law, and therefore there is no sin accounted to man. If there is no sin accounted to man, then there is nothing to repent of. Finally, as a practical result, there is no reason for seeking a relationship with Christ today, i.e. we will all get a free pass into heaven, or anywhere else we want to go at sometime in the future! This approach is found in the Universal Inclusion doctrine of salvation, where ultimately everyone will make it into heaven.
However, that position is a fool’s paradise, for it a failed attempt to ascribe to God the attributes of man, and to judge His motives, plans, and purposes according to our human reasoning which cannot even comprehend God.
Then, it is also written:
1 Tim 1:5-11 ¶ Now the end of the commandment is charity [love] out of a pure heart, and of a good conscience, and of faith unfeigned: From which some having swerved have turned aside unto vain jangling; {having...: or, not aiming at}
Desiring to be teachers of the law; understanding neither what they say, nor whereof they affirm. But we know that the law is good, if a man use it lawfully; Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine; According to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which was committed to my trust.
I found some old notes I posted on another forum concerning the Law of God. I think it might be of a little value to some who might be interested in perusing their own studies into this subject - if I posted those musings here on another thread – after cleaning up some grammar, spelling, etc.
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