No tithe outside of Israel?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

On another note I have heard rumors that there are well-intended saints in the modern church that tithe money (a balatant violation of tithe law) from outside the land of Israel (another infraction), to folk who do not qualify to receive a biblical tithe.

This is what you said. You are saying very plainly that "tithing money" is a blatant violation of the law, that (the money) comes from outside Israel which is another infraction, and is paid to non Levites (people not authorised to receive tithes, which would be another violation). Violations of the law are sin, as John clearly stated. Therefore, you are saying that tithing money that originates outside of Israel to non-Levites is a violation of the law, ie SIN.

But it is preposterous to assert that a person who chose to give ten percent of their paycheck to the local church is sinning. Why? Because there is no prohibition against a person giving whatever they want to whoever they want, least of all the local church.

Are they "tithing"? Yes and no. Yes, because they are giving a tithe (a tenth). No, in the sense they are not keeping or "doing" Levitical, old covenant tithing.

You said a person giving a tenth of money received is violating the law. (Which would be sin.) But they are not violating the law, there is no prohibition against a person giving a tenth of their money (or any other percentage). It would not, however, be a fulfillment of the tithe LAW which has to do with the produce of the land of Israel, and which could not be strictly performed anyway as there are no Levites and no old covenant anymore.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Esaias

This is what you said. You are saying very plainly that "tithing money" is a blatant violation of the law, that (the money) comes from outside Israel which is another infraction, and is paid to non Levites (people not authorised to receive tithes, which would be another violation). Violations of the law are sin, as John clearly stated. Therefore, you are saying that tithing money that originates outside of Israel to non-Levites is a violation of the law, ie SIN.

But it is preposterous to assert that a person who chose to give ten percent of their paycheck to the local church is sinning. Why? Because there is no prohibition against a person giving whatever they want to whoever they want, least of all the local church.

Are they "tithing"? Yes and no. Yes, because they are giving a tithe (a tenth). No, in the sense they are not keeping or "doing" Levitical, old covenant tithing.

You said a person giving a tenth of money received is violating the law. (Which would be sin.) But they are not violating the law, there is no prohibition against a person giving a tenth of their money (or any other percentage). It would not, however, be a fulfillment of the tithe LAW which has to do with the produce of the land of Israel, and which could not be strictly performed anyway as there are no Levites and no old covenant anymore.

Did I EVER tell you that YOUR KUNG FU is VERY GOOD!!!!

[Aquila]

It's my understanding that according to the Law, the tithe was produce and live stock. If a farmer needed to redeem it for his family, he could tithe the monetary value of the produce and live stock, but, he had to pay a 5% penalty. Although I'm not clear on if it was 5% in addition to the tithe, or if was 5% of the tithe amount.

Either way, this is why some believe only tithing 10% of one's income in money violates the Law, if they profess to being lawkeepers.

Of course, many believe that under grace, one is to give as they have determined, kind of like a pledge or vow. Thus, if one determines to give 10%, they're perfectly fine.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Esaias

This is what you said. You are saying very plainly that "tithing money" is a blatant violation of the law, that (the money) comes from outside Israel which is another infraction, and is paid to non Levites (people not authorised to receive tithes, which would be another violation). Violations of the law are sin, as John clearly stated. Therefore, you are saying that tithing money that originates outside of Israel to non-Levites is a violation of the law, ie SIN.

But it is preposterous to assert that a person who chose to give ten percent of their paycheck to the local church is sinning. Why? Because there is no prohibition against a person giving whatever they want to whoever they want, least of all the local church.

Are they "tithing"? Yes and no. Yes, because they are giving a tithe (a tenth). No, in the sense they are not keeping or "doing" Levitical, old covenant tithing.

You said a person giving a tenth of money received is violating the law. (Which would be sin.) But they are not violating the law, there is no prohibition against a person giving a tenth of their money (or any other percentage). It would not, however, be a fulfillment of the tithe LAW which has to do with the produce of the land of Israel, and which could not be strictly performed anyway as there are no Levites and no old covenant anymore.

Just in case some of you are having trouble with your eye balls.

This post is excellent.

[Esaias]

I think the main problem is people get the idea that giving a tenth of one's income is obedience to the Sinaitic requirements regarding tithes. What probably ought to be done, is for teachers to teach what tithing originally was, and then explain how the PRINCIPLES involved can serve as examples for us today.

And this of course goes beyond merely tithing, but ought to include the idea of furstfruits as well. There is nothing wrong with learning the mechanics of giving, and applying it to your particular situation(s). In fact, this was one of the purposes of the law as stated in Deuteronomy 4:6-8, namely, that all nations would learn from God's law and seek to follow His ways.

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by Aquila

It's my understanding that according to the Law, the tithe was produce and live stock. If a farmer needed to redeem it for his family, he could tithe the monetary value of the produce and live stock, but, he had to pay a 5% penalty. Although I'm not clear on if it was 5% in addition to the tithe, or if was 5% of the tithe amount.

Either way, this is why some believe only tithing 10% of one's income in money violates the Law, if they profess to being lawkeepers.

Of course, many believe that under grace, one is to give as they have determined, kind of like a pledge or vow. Thus, if one determines to give 10%, they're perfectly fine.

Just to clarify. They would not give an additional five percent. They would give an additional 1/5 of the monetary value of their tithe. If their tithe was worth one thousand dollars, they could redeem it with twelve hundred dollars. It actually works out to twenty percent, when expressed as a percentage.

Also the tithe of flocks and herds were not to be redeemed. Only the tithe of the seed of the land and fruit of the tree.

In this case the money wouldn’t be tithed, it would instead be used to redeem the crops that had already been tithed. Redeemed meant to buy back, in this case.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Esaias

I think the main problem is people get the idea that giving a tenth of one's income is obedience to the Sinaitic requirements regarding tithes. What probably ought to be done, is for teachers to teach what tithing originally was, and then explain how the PRINCIPLES involved can serve as examples for us today.

And this of course goes beyond merely tithing, but ought to include the idea of furstfruits as well. There is nothing wrong with learning the mechanics of giving, and applying it to your particular situation(s). In fact, this was one of the purposes of the law as stated in Deuteronomy 4:6-8, namely, that all nations would learn from God's law and seek to follow His ways.

[Tithesmeister]

Originally Posted by Esaias

This is what you said. You are saying very plainly that "tithing money" is a blatant violation of the law, that (the money) comes from outside Israel which is another infraction, and is paid to non Levites (people not authorised to receive tithes, which would be another violation). Violations of the law are sin, as John clearly stated. Therefore, you are saying that tithing money that originates outside of Israel to non-Levites is a violation of the law, ie SIN.

But it is preposterous to assert that a person who chose to give ten percent of their paycheck to the local church is sinning. Why? Because there is no prohibition against a person giving whatever they want to whoever they want, least of all the local church.

Are they "tithing"? Yes and no. Yes, because they are giving a tithe (a tenth). No, in the sense they are not keeping or "doing" Levitical, old covenant tithing.

You said a person giving a tenth of money received is violating the law. (Which would be sin.) But they are not violating the law, there is no prohibition against a person giving a tenth of their money (or any other percentage). It would not, however, be a fulfillment of the tithe LAW which has to do with the produce of the land of Israel, and which could not be strictly performed anyway as there are no Levites and no old covenant anymore.

Okay Esaias,

Let’s do it like this. You answer yes or no.

In the day that Nehemiah and Malachi were walking the earth. You are raising cattle. You have ten head to tithe which is one beef.

Your cow that you tithe is worth 50 shekels. Could you give fifty shekels for your tithe or would that be a transgression of the law?

Please answer yes or no.

Would tithing fifty shekels instead of the cow be a transgression of the law?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

Okay Esaias,

Let’s do it like this. You answer yes or no.

In the day that Nehemiah and Malachi were walking the earth. You are raising cattle. You have ten head to tithe which is one beef.

Your cow that you tithe is worth 50 shekels. Could you give fifty shekels for your tithe or would that be a transgression of the law?

Please answer yes or no.

Would tithing fifty shekels instead of the cow be a transgression of the law?

Tithemonster, are you in a church were everyone gives tithes and offerings?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Tithesmeister

Okay Esaias,

Let’s do it like this. You answer yes or no.

In the day that Nehemiah and Malachi were walking the earth. You are raising cattle. You have ten head to tithe which is one beef.

Your cow that you tithe is worth 50 shekels. Could you give fifty shekels for your tithe or would that be a transgression of the law?

Please answer yes or no.

Would tithing fifty shekels instead of the cow be a transgression of the law?

The post you quoted, as well as numerous others in this thread, answer your question, anticipate where you (think you) are going with it, and address those concerns as well. For some reason, you aren't keeping up with the progress of the discussion, but rather you appear stuck on the idea that "anybody who gives ten percent of their income to the church is just wrong, wrong, wrong!"

You seem not to be actually reading the thread. I suggest you review it carefully, then you may be able to participate with something relevant to the topic.