For your consideration, from the KJV:
"And one shall say unto him, What are these wounds in thine hands? Then he shall answer, Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends."
This has long been one of my favorite scriptures since it portrays the God of heaven who comes to fight for Israel with wounds in His hands, thus further proving Jesus is God.
This weekend I was with a friend of mine from church and I quoted this passage, and she said she didn't remember reading it. I took out my trusty smart phone Bible and did a search for the scripture, and apparently I have been looking at the NLT translation so it popped up in that version:
"And if someone asks, ‘Then what about those wounds on your chest?[a]’ he will say, ‘I was wounded at my friends’ house!’ "
[a] Footnote: Hebrew, wounds between your hands.
And then the TLB:
“And if someone asks, ‘Then what are these scars on your chest and your back?’[a] he will say, ‘I got into a brawl at the home of a friend!’*
*
Zechariah 13:6 these scars on your chest and your back. Evidently self-inflicted cuts, as practiced by false prophets; see
1 Kings 18:28. I got into a brawl at the home of a friend, literally, “[These are] wounds I received in the house of my friends.” Some think this refers to Christ; others believe this refers to a false prophet who is lying about the reasons for his scars.
And then the NKJV:
"And one will say to him, ‘What are these wounds between your arms?’[a] Then he will answer, ‘Those with which I was wounded in the house of my friends.’"
[a] Or hands.
And finally, the NIV:
"If someone asks, ‘What are these wounds on your body[a]?’ they will answer, ‘The wounds I was given at the house of my friends.’"
[a] Or wounds between your hands.
I know there are slight differences between versions, but I haven't seen many as glaring as this, as it has the propensity to altar important theological positions. What do you think? Is it as clear as the KJV version states it, or not?
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