MfBlume,
Could Paul's words have simply been for present informational purposes and not reinforcing or referencing head-ship before the fall?
Could Paul have simply meant as followed?
(my interpretation in red)
1Coritinthain 11:3
But I want you to realize that
(in this present hour as I'm aware) the head of every man is Christ, and the head of the woman is man, and the head of Christ is God.
1 Corinthians 11:8
For man was not made from woman
(but rather was made from the dust of the ground), but woman
(who was made from the rib of man) was from man.
Here's a question for you. If headship (submission) existed between Adam and Eve before the fall, why did Eve's punishment include being ruled over by man? (
Gen 3:16)
I simply mean that if Eve was already submitted to Adam, what was God's purpose of verbalizing to Eve that Adam would rule over her? Why was this her punishment for disobedience if she was already submitted to Adam? How was being ruled over by man a punishment for her disobedience if she was already being ruled over by man?
Quote:
Originally Posted by mfblume
By simply saying man is not of the woman , after noting Man is head of woman, we see Paul stating headship over woman BEFORE the fall. Woman was made from man before the fall.
|
Threaded Mode
