Stop skirting around the issue with the immodest introduction of politics.
No one in the Bible ever highlighted the term "abomination" as a certain classification of sin that makes the rule "timeless."
If we claim
Deut. 22:5 is a special rule because of the use of the word "abomination" we are using an argument no one in the NT used.
Why make a special hermeneutic about "abominations" that no one else in the NT made ?
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