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Old 08-17-2019, 03:41 PM
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Evang.Benincasa Evang.Benincasa is offline
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Re: One In The Greek

So, when it all comes down to the wording, we check the context of all scripture together. Understanding that Jesus is the total pinnacle. If He isn't the same as the father, then why did He say so? John 14:9, has Jesus asking a Greek Judian Don't you know me, if you have seen me you have seen the father. That in no way is speaking about seeing something physically, but knowing, understanding. To the ancient Greeks the word ἑωρακὼς meant to see with ones mind, which in plain English is understanding someone clearly as you are looking straight at it. While the Greek word Jesus uses in I and the father are one doesn't have a meaning for unity, or togetherness. Other Greek words known to first century Romans and Judeans alike would of been employed if they wanted to convey that message. You see, Trinitarians fall back on the lameness that it is all a mystery. Then if that is the case, then the discussion is ll over, and the Trinitarian just needs to admit that he or she are clueless. Therefore why on earth are they trying to straighten out anyone on doctrine. Since it is all some unattainable truth. They admit that they don't even know what they are talking about. The Greek and most of all the Hebrew you don't know what I know would be scholarship is baloney. Because no one needs to know anything other language other than their own to know the One God Truth. Or Jesus name baptism and infilling of the Holy Ghost. Uncle Boudreaux, with a basic understanding of French, or English can pick up the Bible and see the Mighty God in Jesus, and that Jesus is the father.
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