Polygamy in the Bible

[Aquila]

Originally Posted by TK Burk

Would one of you brethren that believe polygamy is NOT a sin please explain this:

Matthew 19:8-9
(8) He saith unto them, Moses BECAUSE OF THE HARDNESS OF YOUR HEARTS SUFFERED YOU TO PUT AWAY YOUR WIVES: BUT FROM THE BEGINNING IT WAS NOT SO.
(9) And I SAY UNTO YOU, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.

(1) What did the “hardness” of their “hearts” have to do with that Law being added?

Because so many men would become bitter and desire to be separated from a wife, Moses expanded the stipulations of the writ of divorcement to spare the woman abuse at the hands of hard hearted and potentially abusive men.

(2) What did Jesus mean by “SUFFERED you”?

Jesus meant, "allowed you to divorce your wives".

(3) How was Moses’ Law different than what was first taught?

God never intended for the marriage contract to be broken.

(4) Was what Jesus said to them different than what was written by Moses?

Yes and no. The Law of God states....

Deuteronomy 24:1-4
1When a man hath taken a wife, and married her, and it come to pass that she find no favour in his eyes, because he hath found some uncleanness in her: then let him write her a bill of divorcement, and give it in her hand, and send her out of his house.

Both Jesus and the Law of God allows for divorce. Christ stipulates that the only proper grounds of divorce is for sexual infidelity. This was the original intent of the law. The "uncleanness" was meant to indicate her infidelity. However, Moses allowed divorce for less serious infractions in his application of the Law. Christ doesn't give them anything new. Christ clarifies bringing into focus the true meaning behind the original intent of the Law.

(5) Does different mean God does change His will in certain circumstances?

No. Jesus brought clarification to that which "Moses" confused by his being too lenient.

(6) If Jesus’ position is different than Moses’, would it be sin to NOT do as Jesus commanded and instead do as Moses allowed?

Christ's position is more strict than that of "Moses'" (a fallible man), but not different from the Law of God itself. Again, Christ clarified the Law that Moses was lax upon. Since Christ brings into focus the original intent of the Law of God we should obey Christ over Moses' allowances.

(7) Since the New Covenant removes a “stony heart” and gives a Born Again believer a “fleshly heart,” if a man uses this Law to divorce his wife, would it be a sin?

Again, the issue isn't the Law, it was the allowances made by Moses in regards to this law. God never intended this law to be expanded to include the petty things they used as grounds for divorce.

You will notice that this passage is about divorce not polygamy. This reveals that God never intended a man to divorce his wife (or wives) for any other reason than adultery.