Can Women Pastor ?

[Jeffrey]

Originally Posted by rdp

Ughhhh, say what??? I gave lexical definitions, what are talking about? Regarding sermons, that's simply how many refer to the common ecclesiological practice. Besides, do you believe in the rapture? Yes? Then that's also an "unbiblical word". Be consistent.

Out of pocket for about a week, but plan to try & spend more time on here if possible.

Look if you want to be cocky and dismissive about it, your speech and debate vocabulary and throw-ins of the word "context" do nothing to show us how smart you are.

I was making a specific point about your hair splitting between preaching and sermonizing. Think it back over and maybe you'll catch that.

This Argumentum ad Populum rebuttal to everything is frankly old. My point was, and still is, if the majority of scholars that have examined these subjects, as well as the traditional and historical understanding conflict with your opinions, perhaps you should check your tone, and approach this with a little more humility than trying to come on here and shove your forceful opinion down every throat on AFF. I'm happy to interact with you despite a varying opinion like that. Cocky people just make me want to argue, and it detracts from real discussion.

Also, please elaborate further on your criticism of Norris' "sloppy scholarship." Be specific if you can. You like to type long responses, so you shouldn't mind that request

Why is Priscilla mentioned before Aquilla? What was their role? What about Nymphas?

My comments about 1 Cor 14 -- you dismiss it so quickly that it's hard to take you serious. Assertions? The evidence many scholars cite are not mere assertions. The topic of women being silent does not fit anywhere in the topic outline or scope of the Corinthian letter. I think it's a theory to consider. Even with it there, it must be reconciled with 1 Cor 11, where praying and prophesying are directed toward women. Nevertheless, what of Norris' suggestion that Text is dealing with husband and wives, as it says explicitly? Then there is the idea that Paul is citing a Corinthian question. Others suggest that the overall issue of disorderly prophesy and tongues is related to women that called out to their husbands in a disorderly way and took Paul's egalitarian "there is no male nor female" all the way until there was a violation of social order -- where there was no distinction of genders at their gatherings. But I'm anxious to hear a discussion on 1 Tim 2 further.

I try to reconcile that with those who helped lead the church in the NT that were, in fact, women.

If you wish to berate my intelligence, have at it. It only shows your own lacking. But if you wish to use your knowledge on this subject, and as you understand it, to interact on the points, then please do. But get off your dismissive 3-argument rebuttal. Because an argument is popular does not mean it's right, but it certainly lends much more credibility in the process of debate.

As far as your Greek pal, I won't research him. I don't care to. I just found it funny that you tried to use him as your trump card "expert," when in fact, there are hundreds of scholars that have written positions on this subject that would be in disagreement.