Speaking In Tongues Does Not Equal Salvation.

[Digging4Truth]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

I believe the precedent was set (Acts 2:47) and was not necessary to keep mentioning such a tremendous and promised phenomenon. Why would it be necessary after the upper room experience? It was happening. Today, there is so much doubt, it is easy to overlook something hiding in plain sight.

I also find it remarkable that those making the comments that the sign is not necessarily speaking in tongues - all DO speak in tongues. Don't you find that rather strange?

What is Acts 2:47 a precendent for? All that says is that God added to the church daily.