Why Baptism Doesn't Wash Away Sins, Acts 10:43

[Jermyn Davidson]

Originally Posted by Originalist

The word in the Greek is "in order that your sins may be forgiven". But that does not mean baptism washes away sins, or that your forgiven on the basis of baptism.

But doesn't that "in order that your sins may be forgiven" grammatically lines up with the command to repent?


The reason why THIS discussion is important follows.
At the heart of the UPCI's faulty theology is a works-based, legalistic salvation message that is not biblical.

So while the Apostles may have never sought to disect the role of baptism in one's salvation, the Apostle Paul would stand against the message that is preached by the UPCI. The spirit of the message is not biblical. Acts 2:38 is in the Bible for sure-- but not the way it is presented in Oneness circles and SURELY the Apostle Paul would stand against anyone who would believe in their heart that others are not saved because they were not baptized in the Name of Jesus.

When I speak of the "spirit" of the UPCI's message not being biblical, the last sentecnce in the paragraph above is an example of that erroneous spirit that permeates Oneness doctrine. So is the notion that a person isn't saved until they speak in tongues. So is the notion that if a woman wears pants, it is a reflection of her lack of holiness or more often her lack of salvation all together.

A notable UPCI preacher once said when speaking of their doctrine, "Either we're right or we're really wrong."

Sadly, but firmly, I attest the UPCI is doctrinally wrong. Yet who am I? What does it matter that I say the UPCI is doctrinally wrong? Why is this important?

I am Jermyn Michael Davidson and I KNOW who I am. It matters to me.

I thank GOD for AFF.

[Originalist]

Originally Posted by Jermyn Davidson

But doesn't that "in order that your sins may be forgiven" grammatically lines up with the command to repent?


The reason why THIS discussion is important follows.
At the heart of the UPCI's faulty theology is a works-based, legalistic salvation message that is not biblical.

So while the Apostles may have never sought to disect the role of baptism in one's salvation, the Apostle Paul would stand against the message that is preached by the UPCI. The spirit of the message is not biblical. Acts 2:38 is in the Bible for sure-- but not the way it is presented in Oneness circles and SURELY the Apostle Paul would stand against anyone who would believe in their heart that others are not saved because they were not baptized in the Name of Jesus.

When I speak of the "spirit" of the UPCI's message not being biblical, the last sentecnce in the paragraph above is an example of that erroneous spirit that permeates Oneness doctrine. So is the notion that a person isn't saved until they speak in tongues. So is the notion that if a woman wears pants, it is a reflection of her lack of holiness or more often her lack of salvation all together.

A notable UPCI preacher once said when speaking of their doctrine, "Either we're right or we're really wrong."

Sadly, but firmly, I attest the UPCI is doctrinally wrong. Yet who am I? What does it matter that I say the UPCI is doctrinally wrong? Why is this important?

I am Jermyn Michael Davidson and I KNOW who I am. It matters to me.

I thank GOD for AFF.

Jeremy, Jesus made a direct link to salvation and baptism in Mark 16:16. But baptism is NOT salvation. Baptism is death of self and a surrendering to the authority of the name of Jesus. Absolutely NOTHING supernatural happens in baptism. In baptism, we renounce the old man that we might put on the new. This is why it was normative for someone to receive the Spirit AFTER baptism (Cornelius being the exception).

As far as your first comment goes....

But doesn't that "in order that your sins may be forgiven" grammatically lines up with the command to repent?

Yeah there are some slick Greek "scholars" who will bend every rule in the book to try to come to that conclusion, but it can easily be refuted. I did something novel not long ago, I asked a citizen of Greece that very question. He had no connection to the church in any way. He assured me that Acts 2:38 (reading from the Greek Interlinear) is saying that both repentance and baptism are linked to the remission of sins in that verse.