Why Do You Believe Jesus is God?

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Robert Sanders

Why do you think that the author of this verse did not write it this way?

In the beginning was Jesus the Word and
Jesus the Word was with God and Jesus the Word was God.
And Jesus the Word (which was God) was MADE FLESH.

Please if you will, answer this question,
to the best you can?

Because before being flesh and named Jesus, He was the Word according to John.

Also I presume John expected his audience to have some intelligence and cognitive ability to read

[Robert Sanders]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Because before being flesh and named Jesus, He was the Word according to John.

This is incorrect.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Robert Sanders

This is incorrect.

Here, for the third time/

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men.


Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Joh 1:15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, "This was he of whom I said, 'He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.'")
Joh 1:16 And from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace.
Joh 1:17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

[Trordfure]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Here, for the third time/

Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Joh 1:2 He was in the beginning with God.
Joh 1:3 All things were made through him, and without him was not any thing made that was made.
Joh 1:4 In him was life, and the life was the light of men.


Joh 1:14 And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Joh 1:15 (John bore witness about him, and cried out, "This was he of whom I said, 'He who comes after me ranks before me, because he was before me.'")
Joh 1:16 And from his fullness we have all received, grace upon grace.
Joh 1:17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ.

Which came first, God or the Word?

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Trordfure

Which came first, God or the Word?

Verse 2 is a false translation...the word HE is not the actual translation. The words "the same"are the correct translation (KJV). You are using one of those "fake" bibles here bro...


If you read the KJV, God, through His WORD(Logos) made all things, then Jesus was made(created) in verse 14.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Sean

Verse 2 is a false translation...the word HE is not the actual translation. The words "the same"are the correct translation (KJV). You are using one of those "fake" bibles here bro...


If you read the KJV, God, through His WORD(Logos) made all things, then Jesus was made(created) in verse 14.

Actually the pronoun is Houtos and is a masculine demonstrative pronoun.

Your KJV translates it "He" in several places
Luk 1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:

And here translates it as "The same" to refer to Nicodemus
Joh 3:1 There was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews:
Joh 3:2 The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.

[Sean]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Actually the pronoun is Houtos and is a masculine demonstrative pronoun.

Your KJV translates it "He" in several places
Luk 1:32 He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:

And here translates it as "The same" to refer to Nicodemus
Joh 3:1 There was a man of the Pharisees, named Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews:
Joh 3:2 The same came to Jesus by night, and said unto him, Rabbi, we know that thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that thou doest, except God be with him.

I follow you there, but "the same" is speaking of the Word(logos), or God in verse 2. Inserting "He" there gives it a "Jesus" slant and establishes a trinitarian point of view.

For instance...

In the beginning was the Word(Jesus), and the Word(Jesus) was with God, and the Word(Jesus) was God.

2 The same(Jesus) was in the beginning with God.


Now here is the other view...

In the beginning was the Word(LOGOS,Spoken Word), and the Word(SpokenWord) was with God, and the Word(Spoken Word) was God.

2 The same(referring to Spoken Word, masculine of course) was in the beginning with God.

14 And the Word(Spoken Word) was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

God and his word are inseparable...His word "spoke" everything into existence, including Jesus. His word creates stuff as we see in Genesis.


Your Comments...?

[Trordfure]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Because before being flesh and named Jesus, He was the Word according to John.

What is the difference between the Word and the Word of God?