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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple
He was fully God and fully man. He is still fully God but I cant say at present he is FULLY man. Man? Yes!
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I agree. However, did the "man" (Christ Jesus) have a distinct center of self-conscious reality? We know that when Jesus speaks of the Father He speaks in second and third person consistantly. Linguistically, this establishes a distinct person/personality/personhood.
2.a category used in the classification of pronouns, possessive determiners, and verb forms, according to whether they indicate the speaker (first person), the addressee (second person), or a third party (third person). - Wikipedia
A person is a being, such as a human, that has certain capacities or attributes constituting personhood - Wikipedia
5: the personality of a human being : self - Merriam-Webster
In essence, did the man, Jesus Christ, speak to the Father, speak of the Father, and reference the Father with a distinct sense of "self"? If yes, we have a distinct human personhood. Linguistically, there is no way around it. The Modalistic model can only stand IF one can argue that the distinct human person of Jesus, as established by His own words, is only apparent and cannot be trusted at face value.
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When is the last time you saw someone who was FULLY man walking around with no blood in his body? He is now a "spiritual" man or a glorified man.
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Good point. I too believe that Jesus is currently a glorified man.