End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11 - Page 271

Evang.Benincasa · #**2701** 06-06-2015, 03:47 PM

HELPS Word-studies

Cognate: 2271 hēsyxía (from hēsyxos, "quiet, stillness") – quietness, implying calm; for the believer, 2271 (hēsyxía) is used of their God-produced calm which includes an inner tranquility that supports appropriate action. This term "does not mean speechlessness, which is more directly indicated by 4602 (sigḗ) (J. Thayer). See 2272 (hēsyxios).

rdp · #**2702** 06-06-2015, 05:31 PM

*Oh Brother - the beat goes on I see

. "Well if women can't speak then how can they prophesy, sing, pray, etc." Essentially, this type of argumentation equates to diversionary tactics & smoke in mirrors intended to deflect away from the force of I Timothy 2.11-3.15, I Cor. 14.34, etc. (there are others). In sum, this style of argumentation says, "I cannot adequately explain nor accept what these passages clearly say - so I'll attempt to show you what it *doesn't* say...A very flawed hermeneutic.

*New International Greek (Exegetical) Commentary on I Timothy 2.11-14. If you somehow disagree with this in-depth exegesis-proper, please do so from a textual-exegetical perspective:

γυνῆ is used here, as it has been throughout the passage, to refer to women in general (see v. 9). Imperative μανθανέτω, “learn,” is used here in the literal sense of learning through instruction (i. e., being present at and profiting from the edification of the service [1 Cor. 14:31], contra Babylonian Talmud Nagiga 3a: “The men came to learn, the women came to hear”).

In anticipation of v. 12, the apostle insists that womenʼs learning in public instruction is to be έν ὴσυχίä **(Acts 22:2; 2 Thes. 3:12; 1 Tim. 2:11, 12), which means here “in silence” (as in Acts 22:2; cf. σιγάω, “be silent,” in a parallel situation in 1 Cor. 14:34; see BAGD). This silence is a concrete expression of the principle of submission, which Paul articulates in the next prepositional phrase.

ὑποταγῆ **(2 Cor. 9:13; Gal. 2:5; 1 Tim. 2:11; 3:4) is used here in the passive sense of “subjection, subordination, or submission.” With the related verb ὑποτάσσω (especially 1 Cor. 14:34; Eph. 5:21 [variant reading in v. 22], 24; Col. 3:18; 1 Pet. 3:1, 5) it is used in the NT of the submission of Christians to God the Father (Heb. 12:9; Jas. 4:7), of all things to Christ (present in Eph. 2:22; future in Phil. 3:21), of all Christians to one another in the fear of Christ (Eph. 5:21), and more particularly of the appropriate response of those under authority (1 Cor. 16:16; 1 Pet. 5:5; Rom. 13:1, 5; 1 Tim. 3:4; Tit. 2:9; 3:1; 1 Pet. 2:18), especially with regard to the relationship of wife to husband (Col. 3:18; Eph. 5:21- 22; Tit. 2:5; 1 Pet. 3:1, 5; and thus ὑποτάσσω, ὑποταγῆ, and κεφαλῆ [cf. 1 Cor. 11:3, 4, 5, 7, 10; Eph. 5:23] are key words in this area of concern). In the relationship of husband and wife the concept of submission is used of a voluntary and willing compliance on the part of the wife, an equal, to one whom God has called to be the “head” in that relationship.

Here submission is, more broadly, the norm for the relationship of women to men in authority functions within the church. The addition of πάσἦ (έν πάσἦ ὑποταγῇ) to indicate “the highest degree” expresses in a heightened way the concern Paul has for this norm (for this sense of πάς see 4:9; 5:2; Tit. 2:15; BAGD s. v. la δ; the phrase is rendered “entire submissiveness” in NASB; “all submissiveness” in RSV; “full submission” in NIV). Paul is concerned that womenʼs learning not become an occasion to overturn their role in relation to the authority role that men are to exercise in the church (as apparently in Corinth; cf. 1 Cor. 14:33 ff., where Paul expresses the same concern). Therefore he has added the two qualifications, έν ὴσυχία and έν πάσἦ ὑποταγ.

2.12: Paul carries this injunction further by indicating that he does not permit women to teach and exercise authority over men. δέ is used here to indicate the contrast, “learn but not teach” (cf. 1 Cor. 14:34, where the desire to learn is not to be used to gain the privilege of speaking, and notice the close parallel of that passage, οὐ γάρ έπιτρέπεται αὐταἴς λαλεἴν, to our passage). έπιτρέπω (NT 17x) means “allow, permit” someone (dative) to do something (infinitive; BAGD).

Some have suggested that Paul conveys here only a note of personal disinclination (cf. Phillipsʼs translation:“Personally, I donʼt allow”). But such a suggestion misunderstands the authoritativeness of έπιτρέπω when used by Paul (cf. Robertson:“Paul speaks authoritatively”), which is demonstrated by a close analysis of the three occurrences in Paul (1 Cor. 14:34, a parallel; 16:7, an action of the Lord; here). The strength of the prohibition here is underlined by Paulʼs appeal to the creation order (v. 13, γάρ); in 1 Cor. 14:34 the prohibition is correlated to “the law” (undoubtedly the same OT teaching as here in v. 13) and is further delineated by his covering statement in v. 37, “the things that I write to you are the Lordʼs commandment.”

It has also been suggested that the present indicative form of έπιτρέπω indicates a temporal limitation and thus limits Paulʼs statement to the then and there of Ephesus. An examination of other occurrences of Paulʼs use of first person singular present indicative (Rom. 12:1, 3; 1 Cor. 4:16; 2 Cor. 5:20; Gal. 5:2, 3, Eph. 4:1; 1 Thes. 4:1; 5:14; 2 Thes. 3:6; 1 Tim. 2:1, 8) demonstrates that he uses it to give universal and authoritative instruction or exhortation (cf. especially Rom. 12:1; 1 Tim. 2:8).

As in vv. 9 and 11, so also here γυνῆ refers generally to any “woman,” and this is probably highlighted by the use of anarthrous forms for both γυνῆ and ἀνῆρ. Just as it was womanhood that required silence and submission in v. 11, so here also it is womanhood (vis- à- vis men) that is in view in the prohibition.

That which is not permitted is first of all διδάσκειν, “to teach,” but not as an unqualified prohibition since the object “man” indicates a limitation, as does the immediate context, which has been dealing with religious instruction in the life of the church. To this can be compared Paulʼs commendation of women teaching other women (Tit. 2:3- 5) and teaching their children and sons (2 Tim. 1:5; 3:14, 15; cf. Acts 16:1); he apparently also approved of the team effort of Priscilla and Aquila in explaining in private conversation (“they took him aside”) to Apollos “the way of God more accurately” (Acts 18:25, 26). Just as v. 11 was not a demand for all learning to be done in silence, as an unqualified absolute, but was concerned with womenʼs learning in the midst of the assembled people of God, so also the prohibition of teaching here has the same setting and perspective in view.

διδάσκειν (Pl. *15x) means generally “to teach or instruct.” Here the religious subject matter is assumed, and the persons (not) to be taught are “men,” the implication being that women may not teach or exercise authority in or over the church (of which men are a part; cf. 1 Cor. 14:34, 35:“in the churches,” “in church”). Other uses of the verb in 1 Timothy are in settings where Timothy is urged to teach as part of his ministry (4:11; 6:2), and others are also so urged in 2 Timothy (2:2), though in Titus (1:11) the activity may be somewhat more general.

A similar authoritative note is found in Rom. 12:7; 1 Cor. 4:17; Gal. 1:12; [Eph. 4:21?]; Col. 1:28; 2:7; 2 Thes. 2:15. In Col. 3:16 Paul does not restrict teaching to ministers in distinction from other Christians, and in other places he uses the verb in the most general sense (but still with a certain note or overtone of authority indicated [1 Cor. 11:14] or implied [Rom. 2:21]). In 1 Cor. 14:34, 35, the instruction that women “keep silence” is given in the context of various Christians getting up and speaking. Both there and here Paulʼs prohibition of women teaching would prevent them from serving as elders or ministers, but it is unwarranted to limit it to such a restriction from office- bearing. Paul uses functional language (“to teach”) rather than office language (“a bishop”) to express the prohibition. Here he prohibits women from publicly teaching men, and thus teaching the church.

οὐδέ joins the second infinitive to the first under οὐκ έπιτρέπω, whose negative is now conveyed in οὐδέ itself. Robertson (Grammar, 1185) indicates that “in accord with the copulative use of δέ we frequently have οὐδέ and μηδέ in the continuative sense, carrying on the negative with no idea of contrast” (cf., e. g., Mt. 6:26). Therefore, οὐδέ here may be rendered “nor” (KJV, NEB) or for English stylistic reasons “or” (NASB, RSV, TEV, NIV).

αὐθεντεἴν **(a biblical hapax; see Knight, “ ΑΥΘΕΝΤΕΩ” and the response by Wilshire, “TLG Computer”), once thought to be unique to Christian literature (e. g., Thayer, Lexicon), occurs in the papyrus BGU 1208:38 (27 BC) and in Philodemus, Rhetoric 2 (first century BC; see BAGD for further documentation and later occurrences) and is referred to as Hellenistic (ʻΕλληνικῶς) over against Attic αὐτοδικεἴν by the second- century AD Attic lexicographer Moeris (ed. J. Pierson [1759], 58; [43 in 1831 edition]; cf. also the account of the word and its meaning and that of related words, especially αὐθέντης, in MM; Deissmann, Light, 88f.; Robertson, IV, 570; MHT II, 278).

Contrary to the suggestion of KJV ʼs “to usurp authority” and BAGDʼs alternative, “domineer” (so also NEB), the use of the word shows no inherent negative sense of grasping or usurping authority or of exercising it in a harsh or authoritative way, but simply means “to have or exercise authority” (BAGD; LSJM:“to have full power or authority over”; cf. Preisigke, Wörterbuch I, 235f., giving three nuances for four different papyri, all in the sphere of the above definition; cf. finally Lampe, Lexicon, whose four main meanings are in the same orbit; so NASB, RSV, TEV, NIV:“to have authority”).

Paul refers, then, with αὐθεντεἴν to exercise of a leadership role or function in the church (the contextual setting), and thus by specific application the office of έπίσκοπος /πρεσβὐτερος, since the names of these offices (especially έπίσκοπος) and the activities associated with them (cf., e. g., 3:4, 5; 5:17; Tit. 1:9 ff.; Acts 20:17, 28 ff.) indicate the exercise of authority. It is noteworthy, however, that Paul does not use “office” terminology here (bishop/presbyter) but functional terminology (teach/exercise authority). It is thus the activity that he prohibits, not just the office (cf. again 1 Cor. 14:34, 35).

ἀνῆρ is used here, as in v. 8, to refer to “man” in distinction from woman, not in its more restricted sense of “husband.” The singular refers to men in general, just as γυνῆ refers here and in v. 11 to women in general. The genitive case of ἀνδρὁς agrees with the nearer infinitive, which like other verbs of ruling and governing takes the genitive (BDF §177; Robertson, Grammar, 510), though the noun qualifies not only the second infinitive, αὐθεντεἴν, but also the first, διδάσκειν, in accordance with normal Greek usage (cf. Acts 8:21, where as here οὐδέ is used; see also Smyth, Grammar §1634, which gives an example of two infinitives joined by οὐδέ with a common object written only once).

**Continued....

rdp · #**2703** 06-06-2015, 05:33 PM

That a woman may not teach in the church, or teach a man, is underlined by the addition of ἀλλʼ εἵναι έν ὴσυχίä. The adversative particle ἀλλά indicates that this clause is contrasted with what precedes (not to teach or exercise authority but to be in silence). Some have suggested that Paul is only ruling out teaching or exercise of authority apart from a manʼs oversight, or just a certain type of authoritative teaching. The insistence here on silence seems to rule out all these solutions. The clause as a whole describes the status of a woman not in relation to every aspect of the gathered assembly (i. e., praying, prophesying, singing, etc.; cf. again 1 Cor. 11:5) but specifically in respect to that with which it is contrasted, i. e., teaching (and the exercise of authority), just as the first occurrence of έν ὴσυχίä applied to the learning/teaching situation (v. 11).

2.13: The ground for the prohibition is now given:It is the order of the creation of Adam and Eve as the archetypes of man and woman and the implication of this order for headship and submission in such relationships. (The conjunction γάρ signifies that the statement that follows provides the reason for the previous command; cf. BAGD s. v. 1.) The verse is a terse statement of an argument that Paul has used before in connection with the headship of man to woman in 1 Cor. 11:3 ff.

̓Αδάμ is the transliteration of the Hebrew word used in Genesis as the name of the first man created by God (first in the Hebrew text at Gn. 1:26; first in the LXX at Gn. 2:16; cf. 1 Cor. 15:45:“the first man, Adam”). It is used in our passage not of generic “mankind,” as in Gn. 1:26, 27, but of man =male, as distinct from Eve (cf. especially Gn. 2:20 ff.). πρῶτος, used here as a predicate adjective (cf. BAGD s. v. 1a; Robertson, Grammar, 657; BDF §243), indicates both the absolute priority of Adam in Godʼs creation and, most of all, in the contrast here of Adam to Eve (εἵτα Εύα), his priority to her.

πλάσσω **(Rom. 9:20; 1 Tim. 2:13; both seem to reflect the OT usage) means “form” or “mold” and is the verb used by the LXX in Gn. 2:7, 8, 15 (v. 15 without a Hebrew equivalent) of the creation of Adam. εἵτα (NT 13x) is used here, as is predominantly the case in the NT, as a temporal adverb meaning “then.” It is found in the “first... then...” construction here and in 3:10 (BAGD s. v. 1). Εύα **(2 Cor. 11:3; 1 Tim. 2:13) is the Greek transliteration (sometimes Εὑα) of Hebrew ḥawwâh, the name of the woman formed from Adam (first so named in Gn. 3:20, where the LXX renders it Ζωῆ:the first use of Εύα in the LXX is in 4:1).

It is evident, then, that Paul has Genesis 2 in mind here, just as he has Genesis 3 in mind in the next verse, as is evidenced by his use of LXX terms (especially πλάσσω). The appeal to what God does (or says) with Adam and Eve in the creation account as an indication of Godʼs will with reference to men and women in general is similar to the argument Jesus uses in demonstrating that God intends permanence for marriage between men and women (Mt. 19:4-6).

With this brief statement on the order of creation Paul appeals to the whole of the creation narrative, as is indicated by his fuller treatment in 1 Cor. 11:8- 9 (cf. Dodd, According to the Scriptures). This whole account would include “a helper suitable for him [i. e., for man, Adam]”; (Gn. 2:18) and the significance of the naming of the woman: “She shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man” (2:23). Paul explicitly specifies that the woman was “taken out of” (έκ) the man and created to help, or to be “for” (διά), the man in his fuller statement in 1 Corinthians. So it is not mere chronology (“first... then...”) that Paul appeals to here but what is entailed in this chronology. (That drawing such implications from chronological priority is not foreign to the OT is seen from the similar, but different, appeals to the rights of primogeniture [see I. H. Marshall, NBD 377f.; J. E. Rosscup, ZPEB II, 540f.; R. de Vaux, Ancient Israel, 41f.].)

**Continued....

rdp · #**2704** 06-06-2015, 05:34 PM

2.14: καί joins this verse to the preceding. Paul now appeals to the fall as an event that demonstrates in the most absolute way the dire consequences of a reversal of leadership roles. Just as v. 13 reflects the events and terminology of Genesis 2, so v. 14 reflects Genesis 3 and the terms used there (especially ἀπατάω).

ἀπατάω **(Eph. 5:6; here; Jas. 1:26) means “deceive” or “mislead” and occurs in the LXX of Genesis only at 3:13 in the womanʼs statement: “The serpent deceived me.” καϊ ̓Αδὰμ οὐκ ήπατῆθη is not meant to deny Adamʼs sin or participation in the fall (cf. Rom. 5:12 ff.; 1 Cor. 15:21, 22) but to indicate, as the Genesis narrative does, that he sinned willfully, not as a result of deception (Gn. 3:6, 12). To this Paul contrasts (δέ =“but”) the womanʼs deception. ὴ γυνῆ is probably used instead of “Eve” because it is used in the LXX of the Genesis 3 account (vv. 1, 2, 4, 6, 12, 13, 15, 16, 17; “Eve” appears in v. 20, only after the temptation/fall/judgment account) and also perhaps to begin to make the transition from Eve as a type to women in general (to whom this section is addressed). (γυνῆ is used in the statement about the seed of the woman in Gn. 3:15 [cf. both Hebrew and LXX].)

The argument would then proceed in three steps: from “Eve” to “the woman” (singular as a transition from “Eve” to “women”) to plural “women” in v. 15 (cf. Ridderbos). The compound form έξαπατάω, which similarly means “deceive” or “lead astray,” may be used with regard to “the woman” in contrast with the preceding uncompounded form (with “Adam”) for emphasis; but it also may simply be a stylistic change reflecting Paulʼs preference, since he uses the same compound verb in reference to Eve in 2 Cor. 11:3 as well. The basis for Paulʼs affirmation is the womanʼs statement in Gn. 3:13: “The serpent deceived me, and I ate.”

The last part of the verse indicates the state of affairs resulting from the deception: the woman “fell into transgression” (NASB; cf. BAGD s. v. έν 14d) or “became a transgressor” (RSV; BAGD s. v. παράβασις [612]). παράβασις is used of the overstepping of set limits and therefore more tersely “transgression,” in the NT always transgression against Godʼs law or standard. Eve, by being deceived, took and ate the prohibited fruit and thus came into transgression. γέγονεν (perfect tense) indicates, with the prepositional phrase, the new condition into which she entered.

V. 14 thus shows by a negative example the importance of heeding the respective roles established by God in the creation of Eve from Adam. This adds to v. 13 (with καί) an example rather than a separate basis for Paulʼs argument. Thus Paul argues not from creation and fall but from creation, and then illustrates this argument, albeit negatively, from the fall (cf. Godʼs judgment on Adam: “Because you have listened to the voice of your wife,” Gn. 3:17).

**Continued....

rdp · #**2705** 06-06-2015, 05:35 PM

2.15: Paul brings the section addressed to women to a conclusion with a note of encouragement (the main verb is σὥζω, “save”) and an emphasis on continued Christian faith and godliness (repeating σωφροσὐνης from v. 9, so that the section begins and ends with this motif).

The exegetical cruxes in this verse are the meanings of σωθῆσεται and διὰ τἤς τεκνογονίας in connection with the following έάν clause. These questions are further encumbered by the shift from singular (σωθῆσεται) to plural (μείνωσιν) and the attendant problem of identifying the subjects of these verbs.

Essentially two views have been followed on the use here of σωθῆσεται:The reference is to either (1) salvation in the spiritual sense or (2) salvation in the physical sense of preservation. Similarly, essentially two views have been taken with regard to διὰ τἤς τεκνογονίας:It is a reference to either (1) the birth of Messiah or (2) childbearing in general. Various combinations of these solutions have been suggested.

It would be contrary to Paulʼs teaching elsewhere and to the emphasis of this letter (cf. 1 Tim. 1:15, 16; 2:3- 6) and the other PE (cf. especially Tit. 3:3- 7; 2 Tim. 1:8- 10) to understand σωθῆσεται as referring to spiritual salvation if διὰ τἤς τεκνογονίας is taken as referring to childbearing in general. This would make salvation for women conditional on a work, and specifically a work not all are able to perform.

Some suggest that we take σωθῆσεται to mean “preserve” in the physical sense and διὰ τἤς τεκνογονίας to refer to childbirth (Barrett, Dibelius- Conzelmann [?], Guthrie, Simpson), on the grounds that this passage then would relate to the same problem as Gn. 3:16. But this suggestion also raises the question of how the έάν clause then functions. Is the clause saying that all who come through childbirth do so because they believe, implying that all who die in childbirth do not believe? This seems extremely unlikely. Furthermore, the problem of being preserved through childbirth is not part of the context in 1 Timothy, and it is doubtful whether σὥζω was ever used by Paul in this sense.

Another view (with some variations, Alford, Bernard, Calvin, Falconer, Scott, and White) understands σωθῆσεται in the spiritual sense and τεκνογονία in the physical, but understands the connection of the former with the latter (διά) in terms of deliverance from (cf. 1 Cor. 3:15, “through fire”) the pain of childbirth, which is understood as the sign of woman being in transgression (cf. Gn. 3:16). Women then are being encouraged to fulfill the role of motherhood, even though that very role reminds them of the fall and its consequence for them, because God will save them out of all such one day, if they continue, etc.

But this understanding of διά is strained in this context, and the understanding of τεκνογονία taken in this view is far more negative than is appropriate to the context in both 1 Timothy and Genesis 3, almost as if childbearing were a hindrance to salvation (cf. the positive use of τεκνογονέω in 5:14; cf. also Gn. 4:1). Furthermore, it is doubtful whether Christian women ever faced the dilemma assumed by this position.

Another view (cf. with variations Chrysostom, Gealy, Hendriksen, Huther, Jeremias, Kelly, Parry, Ridderbos, Robertson, Ward, Weiss, and Vine) understands the salvation referred to predominantly in the spiritual sense and the reference to childbearing as typical of the feminine role. Thus, the way to salvation is not found by seeking a masculine role or by repudiating a feminine role but simply in being a woman (typified by childbearing) and responding to God in faith. The particular difficulty with this is the ambiguity in the understanding of σὥζω, especially in its relationship to childbearing and the feminine role, so that the significance of the latter, and especially the διά phrase, for σὥζω is quite unclear.

Yet another view falls somewhat in between in its understanding of the terms: The woman shall be saved or preserved from the error of becoming the dominant religious figure (v. 12) by assuming the feminine role, here typified symbolically (but not literally) by the expression διὰ τἤς τεκνογονίας, but only when assuming this role is coupled with faith and godliness (see Hurley, Man and Woman). Attractive as this position is in tying the conclusion to the argument, it still has difficulties in adequately explaining the fact that σωθῆσεται (singular) appears to have ὴ γυνῆ as its subject, the meaning of σωθῆσεται, and the use of a prepositional phrase in this uniquely typical and symbolic way.

The most likely understanding of this verse is that it refers to spiritual salvation through the birth of the Messiah. Some commentators (Alford, Bernard, Guthrie, Ward) have rejected this view without giving adequate reasons. But good reasons exist for adopting it (so Ellicott; Lock; H. von Soden; Wohlenberg; Huizenga, “Women”; cf. RV, RSV margin, NEB margin; with undue emphasis on Mary, Ignatius, Eph. 19; Irenaeus, Haer. 5. 19; Justin, Dial. 100):

First, the context: V. 14 summarizes the womanʼs fall into sin (έν παραβάσει γέγονεν) described in Genesis 3. The one about whom it speaks is “the woman” (ὴ γυνῆ), Eve, and this one is the natural subject to be understood in v. 15, “she will be saved” = the woman, Eve, will be saved. From what does Eve need to be saved (in both 1 Timothy 2 and Genesis 3)? From έν παραβάσει γέγονεν, the last words preceding this verse. In the protevangelium of Gn. 3:15, which speaks of “her seed” and says “He [the seed] shall bruise you [the serpent =Satan] on the head,” salvation is announced in terms of a child to be borne by the woman.

Furthermore, this understanding fits the flow of Paulʼs argument. He points out that Eve (ὴ γυνῆ) brought herself into transgression by abandoning her role and taking on that of the man. But by fulfilling her role, difficult as it may be as a result of sin (Gn. 3:16), she gives birth to the Messiah, and thereby “she” (ὴ γυνῆ, fulfilled, of course, in Mary; cf. Gal. 4:4) brings salvation into the world. The conditional clause (έὰν μείνωσιν κτλ.) signifies that the previous statement is true only when conditions are met, and σωθῆσεται, understood as referring to spiritual salvation, would seem to be the only understanding that fulfills that requirement. Thus deliverance from transgression comes to those who have a true and sincere faith, which points to the usual correlation between salvation and faith in Paul and the attendant and abiding manifestation of faith in a godly life (cf. Romans 6 and 8). There is thus a transition from Eve (ὴ γυνῆ, singular σωθῆσεται) back to women in general (μείνωσιν, plural); in this way the passage serves to show women the importance of their role and of carrying it out in an obedient way, the note on which the passage ends (ἁγιασμὦ μετὰ σωφροσὐνης; cf. Maryʼs words in Lk. 1:38).

Second, the vocabulary, consideration of which brings us to the detailed examination of the text on the basis of which the view presented above can be tested. δέ here suggests the contrast between vv. 14 and 15. The subject of σωθῆσεται is “the woman” (Eve, but also as typical woman) “in transgression.”

That σωθῆσεται is passive indicates that the deliverance is wrought for her by another. That its tense is future points forward from Eve to the promised future deliverance by means of the seed of the woman, which is Christ (Gn. 3:15). σὥζω (NT 106x; Pl. 29x) is used by Paul in the sense of “ save or preserve from eternal death, from judgment, and from all that might lead to such death, e. g., sin, also in a positive sense, bring Messianic salvation, bring to salvation” (BAGD s. v. 2 [798], which places all Pauline occurrences in this category [Rom. 9:27 and 1 Cor. 3:15 being placed both in this category and in another]; cf. also J. Schneider, NIDNTT III, 214f.; W. Foerster, TDNT VII, 992- 95). In line with this comprehensive evaluation is the usage of σὥζω (1:15; 2:4) and πίστις (1:2, 4, 5, 14, 19 [2x]; 2:7) in 1 Timothy up to this point in the flow of the argument.

διά with the genitive is used here to express means, instrument, or agency (cf. BAGD s. v. A. III. 1d [180]). There are seven occurrences in the NT of the verb σὥζω with διά (Acts 15:11; Rom. 5:9; 1 Cor. 1:21; 3:15; 15:2; here; 1 Pet. 3:20), all except 1 Cor. 1:21 passive and all except 1 Cor. 3:15 (which has δέ ὗς and thus has a different relationship) and 1 Pet. 3:20 (leaving 1 Tim. 2:15 aside for the moment) indicating with διά the means through which salvation is brought, accomplished, or appropriated (where an element is mentioned, i. e., fire or water [1 Cor. 3:15; 1 Pet. 3:20], salvation is brought through these elements, not by them). Since τεκνογονία may well indicate the seed of the woman, Jesus (cf. especially Rom. 5:9), it would be in accord with Paulʼs usage to understand διά with the passive form of σὥζω in this same manner, which is a normal understanding of διά and fits best with the interpretation being proposed.

That through which, or by means of which, the woman will be saved is τεκνογονία **(a biblical hapax), “bearing a child.” Although it is not certain that the definite article is to be stressed (the article is absent in Stoicorum Veterum Fragmenta [ed. J. von Arnim] III, 158, 5; in Galen, Corpus Medicorum Graecorum V/9/1, 27, 12; and in a textual variant here), if it is, then the noun plus article would refer to “ the bearing of a child”; but even without such a stress the reference to “bearing a child” could well stand for the birth of the promised seed of the woman (cf., e. g., Ellicott).

Although the salvation is objectively accomplished and provided, it is not thereby automatically experienced. To experience it requires a living and abiding faith (έὰν μείνωσιν έν πίστει) manifested and expressed in holiness of life appropriate to women (καϊ ἀγάπἦ... μετὰ σωφροσὐνης). With a shift to the plural (μείνωσιν) and a conclusion utilizing one of the key opening terms (σωφροσὐνη, vv. 9, 15), Paul returns to women in general. Although it could be argued that this clause could apply to men and children as well, here it is applied specifically to women.

Continued....

rdp · #**2706** 06-06-2015, 05:36 PM

The έάν clause indicates the condition necessary to receive the salvation and remain in it and states it as a fact assumed to be true (cf. BAGD s. v. 1 [211]; BDF §371. 4; 373). μένω is used figuratively here of abiding in a realm or sphere (BAGD s. v. 1a, b [503f.]; cf. 2 Tim. 3:14; 1 Cor. 7:8, 11, 20, 24, 40). The concept of “remaining” or “continuing” would also seem to tie the subject of this verb to the subject of the previous clause (γυνῆ); one does not talk about “continuing” with a new subject but with a continuation of the previous subject. The same emphasis on the need for permanence and perseverance is sounded in 1 Cor. 15:2, which speaks of salvation (σὥζω) through (διά) Christʼs work, if (εἰ) “you hold fast” (κατέχετε; cf. also μένω in Jn. 15:4- 10).

πίστις (cf. 1:2) in the flow of the letter and in connection with σὥζω undoubtedly means “ trust, confidence, faith in the active sense =ʻbelievingʼ” (BAGD s. v. 2 [662]), with έν indicating the sphere or realm in which women are to continue. Joined to πίστις are ἀγάπη and ἁγιασμὁς, the first of which is joined to πίστις in 2:14 (cf. 1:5) and in Gal. 5:6 to express the essence of the response called for by the gospel of grace, in contrast to a salvation that relies on works. The addition of ἁγιασμὁς is in accord with Paulʼs practice of correlating two, three, or more items in which faith and love are usually the constants (1 Cor. 13:13; Gal. 5:22, 23; Eph. 6:23; 1 Thes. 1:3; 3:6; 5:8; 2 Thes. 1:3, 4; 1 Tim. 1:5, 14, 19; 4:12; 6:11; 2 Tim. 1:13; 2:22; 3:10; Phm. 5). The note of ethical concern, as here, is usually found either in the list or its context (cf. especially 1 Tim. 4:12:έν λὁγῳ, έν ἀναστροφἦ, έν ἀγάπἦ, έν πίστει, έν ἁγνείä).

ἁγιασμὁς (NT 10x) means in the NT “ holiness, consecration, sanctification; the use in a moral sense for a process or, more often, its result (the state of being made holy)” (BAGD s. v. [220]). Its use here to denote a state or process in which women must continue as a condition for salvation is in accord with 2 Thes. 2:13, where the brethren are chosen by God “for salvation through sanctification by the Spirit,” and especially Rom. 6:19, 22: In Romans 6 Paul responds to the question whether one may continue in sin with the answer summed up in vv. 22, 23. Just as he says there that salvation in Christ must be demonstrated in a living faith through ἁγιασμὁς, so also he says the same to women in 1 Tim. 2:15 (cf. Heb. 12:14).

It may be that ἁγιασμὁς in 1 Tim. 2:15 has particular reference to both v. 9, with its emphasis on modesty, and the “good works” mentioned in v. 10.
μετὰ σωφροσὐνης, “with self- restraint” (see v. 9), brings into perspective the need for this virtue in addition to the general call for ἁγιασμὁς. It probably refers not only to restraint and discretion in regard to clothing and adornment, but also, in connection with vv. 11- 14, a womanʼs role vis- à- vis men and the church. It is thus a reminder that not only sin (vv. 9, 10) but also the creation order necessitates self- restraint and that true faith, love, and sanctity will manifest itself in a lifestyle and attitude that restrains itself from immodesty or ostentatiousness and from violating the order of the Creator- Savior.

The understanding and application of vv. 12- 15 are much in discussion, and the literature must be consulted as it appears. For a discussion of the question as a whole with references to the main body of literature up to that time see Knight, Role Relationship; see especially also Mooʼs thorough exegetical study, “ 1 Timothy 2:11- 15,” and, responding to P. Payneʼs response, Mooʼs “Interpretation of 1 Timothy 2:11- 15.” Since the literature on the subject as a whole is voluminous and grows constantly, rather than giving a bibliographical note here I would refer the reader to two representative collections of essays that carefully present the arguments on both sides, interact with one another, and refer to much of the current literature:Mickelsen, ed., Women; Piper and Grudem, eds., Recovering.

**Okay - This should suffice for now. There is plenty more if you're still not convinced that God's Word - in its originally inspired languages - says what it means & means what it says

!

Evang.Benincasa · #**2707** 06-06-2015, 05:37 PM

Keep it coming!

rdp · #**2708** 06-06-2015, 05:41 PM

**BDAG: ἡσυχία, ας, ἡ (s. prec. entry; Hom. +). State of saying nothing or very little, silence (Pla., Ep. 2, 312c; Pr 11:12; Philo, Rer. Div. Her. 14; Jos., Ant. 3, 67) IEph 15:2. ἐν ἡσ. in silence (Philo, Somn. 2, 263) 1 Timothy 2.11f.

**Louw-Nida: 33.119 ἡσυχάζω (3) ας f

includes: ἡσυχία [b]) to maintain a state of silence, with a possible focus upon the attitude involved - to say nothing, to remain quiet. ἡσυχάζω [c]:ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν...λέγων, Έξεστιν τῷ σαββάτῳ θεραπεῦσαι ἤ οὔ; οἱ δὲ ἡσύχασαν Jesus asked...Is healing allowed on the Sabbath or not? But they would not say a thing LUK. 14:3- 4. ἡσυχία [b]:ἀκούσαντες δὲ ὅτι τῇ Εβραιδι διαλέκτῳ προσεφώνει αὐτοῖς μᾶλλον παρέσχον ἡσυχίαν when they heard him speaking to them in Hebrew, they were even quieter ACT. 22:2.

**NET Full-Translators-Notes: Greek, "but to be in quietness." The phrase ἐν ἡσυχίᾳ (en hesuchia) is used in Greek literature either of absolute silence or of a quiet demeanor.

Scott Pitta · #**2709** 06-06-2015, 06:14 PM

So what are you quoting from ? What is the source ? Got it.

We learned in college to go from the known to the unknown. Women can teach, as Titus shows. Women can prophecy and are not prohibited from exercising any other spiritual gift. They are specifically told to teach younger women.

That much we know.

That being true, our understanding of 1 Tim. 2:10 needs to be understood in the larger Pauline context.

rdp · #**2710** 06-06-2015, 06:24 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Scott Pitta

So what are you quoting from ? What is the source ?

*Already quoted it at the beginning of the post: New International Dictionary of Greek-Exegetical Commentary.

*See here: https://www.logos.com/product/8808/t...ent-commentary

*Also quoted from BDAG, Louw-Nida, NET Full-Notes Translator Notes.

*If you disagree with these exegetical facts, please do so from a grammatical perspective with quoted sources - as I have done above (again, this is only the beginning).