The Johannine Comma: Inspiration? Or Interpolation?

[FlamingZword]

Erasmus did not put the Comma in his first or second edition of his Greek Text, he only added it to the 3rd edition and then he removed it from the 4th and the 5th edition.

It was his third edition that was the only one that used the Comma.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by FlamingZword

Erasmus did not put the Comma in his first or second edition of his Greek Text, he only added it to the 3rd edition and then he removed it from the 4th and the 5th edition.

It was his third edition that was the only one that used the Comma.

Speaking of the citations of the early church fathers John Gill continues: "And yet, after all, certain it is, that it is cited by many of them; by Fulgentius, in the beginning of the "sixth" century, against the Arians, without any scruple or hesitation; and Jerome, as before observed, has it in his translation made in the latter end of the "fourth" century; AND IT IS CITED BY ATHANASIUS ABOUT THE YEAR 350; AND BEFORE HIM BY CYPRIAN, IN THE MIDDLE OF THE THIRD CENTURY, ABOUT THE YEAR 250; AND IT IS REFERRED TO BY TERTULLIAN ABOUT THE YEAR 200; AND WHICH WAS WITHIN A HUNDRED YEARS, OR LITTLE MORE, OF THE WRITING OF THE EPISTLE, WHICH MAY BE ENOUGH TO SATISFY ANYONE OF THE GENUINENESS OF THIS PASSAGE; and besides, there never was any dispute about it till Erasmus left it out in the first edition of his translation of the New Testament; and yet he himself, upon the credit of the old British copy before mentioned, put it into another edition of his translation." - from the page I linked to earlier.

[Michael The Disciple]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Speaking of the citations of the early church fathers John Gill continues: "And yet, after all, certain it is, that it is cited by many of them; by Fulgentius, in the beginning of the "sixth" century, against the Arians, without any scruple or hesitation; and Jerome, as before observed, has it in his translation made in the latter end of the "fourth" century; AND IT IS CITED BY ATHANASIUS ABOUT THE YEAR 350; AND BEFORE HIM BY CYPRIAN, IN THE MIDDLE OF THE THIRD CENTURY, ABOUT THE YEAR 250; AND IT IS REFERRED TO BY TERTULLIAN ABOUT THE YEAR 200; AND WHICH WAS WITHIN A HUNDRED YEARS, OR LITTLE MORE, OF THE WRITING OF THE EPISTLE, WHICH MAY BE ENOUGH TO SATISFY ANYONE OF THE GENUINENESS OF THIS PASSAGE; and besides, there never was any dispute about it till Erasmus left it out in the first edition of his translation of the New Testament; and yet he himself, upon the credit of the old British copy before mentioned, put it into another edition of his translation." - from the page I linked to earlier.

I have not read the whole thread but I would like to see the evidence that Tertullian quotes the passage. I remember some of the others.

I read a good piece years ago by a Trin who said the verse was taken out over time because it seemed to teach Oneness.

BTW it was this verse that got me thinking about Oneness.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple

I have not read the whole thread but I would like to see the evidence that Tertullian quotes the passage. I remember some of the others.

I read a good piece years ago by a Trin who said the verse was taken out over time because it seemed to teach Oneness.

BTW it was this verse that got me thinking about Oneness.

For the law of baptizing has been imposed, and the formula prescribed: “Go,” He saith, “teach the nations, baptizing them into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit.” The comparison with this law of that definition, “Unless a man have been reborn of water and Spirit, he shall not enter into the kingdom of the heavens,” has tied faith to the necessity of baptism. http://www.ccel.org/ccel/schaff/anf03.vi.iii.xiii.html

EDIT: Sorry, thought I was on the other thread. Hold on a minute...