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Old 04-18-2016, 04:53 PM
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Michael The Disciple Michael The Disciple is offline
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Esaias View Post
How does this show that Yeshua is better than Jesus? BTW, the word translated salvation in those verses is not translated Joshua, Jehoshua, etc, indicating it is the common word for "salvation" rather than a direct reference of a name. Related, absolutely, because Yeshua means essentially salvation. But I don't see how this shows the NT was written in Hebrew, or that Yeshua is better for English speakers than Jesus???
Well to someone who was HEBREW I would imagine they would quickly grasp the significance that EL BECAME YESHUAH.

In other words "God was manifest in the flesh".

Isaiah 12:2 is very good for proving Yeshuah is EL for anyone searching.

And if you cannot see anything in Jesus saying to the woman "if you knew who you were talking to he would give you living waters" when Isaiah had prophesied "with joy you will draw waters from the wells of Yeshuah" I probably could not add much to the concept.
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Old 04-18-2016, 05:08 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
Well to someone who was HEBREW I would imagine they would quickly grasp the significance that EL BECAME YESHUAH.

In other words "God was manifest in the flesh".

Isaiah 12:2 is very good for proving Yeshuah is EL for anyone searching.

And if you cannot see anything in Jesus saying to the woman "if you knew who you were talking to he would give you living waters" when Isaiah had prophesied "with joy you will draw waters from the wells of Yeshuah" I probably could not add much to the concept.
A Hebrew would know that God is become salvation, not necessarily a man named Joshua.

The woman at the well has nothing to do with whether English speakers OUGHT to use Hebrew names for Christ. That's a clear non sequitur.

Paul wrote to Thessalonian believers. Did he write to them in Hebrew? Or Greek?

What about the Galatian believers? Or Titus? How about the Revelation, why does Jesus call himself the Alpha and Omega instead of the Alef and Tav?
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Old 04-18-2016, 07:13 PM
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Evang.Benincasa Evang.Benincasa is offline
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
Well to someone who was HEBREW I would imagine they would quickly grasp the significance that EL BECAME YESHUAH.

In other words "God was manifest in the flesh".

Isaiah 12:2 is very good for proving Yeshuah is EL for anyone searching.

And if you cannot see anything in Jesus saying to the woman "if you knew who you were talking to he would give you living waters" when Isaiah had prophesied "with joy you will draw waters from the wells of Yeshuah" I probably could not add much to the concept.
His name was Yehoshua.

Yehoshua: "the LORD is salvation."

I guess you are going to have to call everyone back who you been baptizing in a feminine noun.

yeshuah: salvation
Original Word: יְשׁוּעָה
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: yeshuah
Phonetic Spelling: (yesh-oo'-aw)
Short Definition: salvation
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Old 04-18-2016, 07:45 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa View Post
His name was Yehoshua.

Yehoshua: "the LORD is salvation."

I guess you are going to have to call everyone back who you been baptizing in a feminine noun.

yeshuah: salvation
Original Word: יְשׁוּעָה
Part of Speech: Noun Feminine
Transliteration: yeshuah
Phonetic Spelling: (yesh-oo'-aw)
Short Definition: salvation
We are talking about different things. I mean to eventually tie them together but it probably would make no difference if I do.

Anyway you may be aware the word "Spirit" as in the SPIRIT OF GOD...is a feminine word.

So will God submit himself to the rules of mens language? Or will he be what he is?

Strongs Dictionary Page 123 under word number 3444 last sentence.

Jesus (a Greek form of yeshu'ah).
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Old 04-18-2016, 07:48 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
We are talking about different things. I mean to eventually tie them together but it probably would make no difference if I do.

Anyway you may be aware the word "Spirit" as in the SPIRIT OF GOD...is a feminine word.

So will God submit himself to the rules of mens language? Or will he be what he is?

Strongs Dictionary Page 123 under word number 3444 last sentence.

Jesus (a Greek form of yeshu'ah).
There you go. Strong scholar.
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Old 04-18-2016, 07:54 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Michael The Disciple View Post
We are talking about different things. I mean to eventually tie them together but it probably would make no difference if I do.

Anyway you may be aware the word "Spirit" as in the SPIRIT OF GOD...is a feminine word.

So will God submit himself to the rules of mens language? Or will he be what he is?

Strongs Dictionary Page 123 under word number 3444 last sentence.

Jesus (a Greek form of yeshu'ah).
Mike, it is feminine noun because it is the WORD salvation. Yehoshua is a name, the name of the Judean Messiah. I understand that people accept that Jesus was called Yeshua, but that doesn't mean Yah is salvation. Yehoshua is the compound word, not Yeshua. Hey, your the Hebraist here so spoon feed, is His name salvation or Yah is Salvation? I have heard this go back and forth over and over again. Jehovah Salvation, Yahweh Salvation, across pulpits, but Yehoshua is the only one that fits the bill. Yeshua means salvation, not Yah is salvation? Right?
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Old 04-18-2016, 07:58 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

Hebrews 4:8

For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.
KJV

Jubilee Bible 2000
For if Jesus {Joshua in Heb.} had given them rest, then he would not afterward have spoken of another day.
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Old 04-18-2016, 09:08 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)



What I have always noticed about this argument to prefer Yeshua, Yehoshua, Yeshu, over any other name, is that the conclusion is our New Testament isn't an original. But a Hellenized (or ROMANIZED) translation of an original Hebrew set of manuscripts. So, my questions remain unanswered, why was a Judean leader called by an Ancient Greek name? Was Nicodemus his name? Yohanan Marcus? Why did a disciple of Jesus Christ have an Aramaic name, and a Roman name? Phillip the apostle? His name has no Hebrew or Aramaic equivalent? Why? Was his name lost when the Greek New Testament was translated from the Hebrew original?
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Old 04-18-2016, 09:11 PM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

Did Yohanan Marcus write his name in Greek, Latin or Aramaic?
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Old 04-19-2016, 12:19 AM
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Re: Calling on the Name of Jesus (at baptism)

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Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa View Post


What I have always noticed about this argument to prefer Yeshua, Yehoshua, Yeshu, over any other name, is that the conclusion is our New Testament isn't an original. But a Hellenized (or ROMANIZED) translation of an original Hebrew set of manuscripts. So, my questions remain unanswered, why was a Judean leader called by an Ancient Greek name? Was Nicodemus his name? Yohanan Marcus? Why did a disciple of Jesus Christ have an Aramaic name, and a Roman name? Phillip the apostle? His name has no Hebrew or Aramaic equivalent? Why? Was his name lost when the Greek New Testament was translated from the Hebrew original?
I haven't seen anyone here adamantly claim that the extant manuscripts of the New Testament are somehow un-original. What I have seen is a cautious admittance that since the earliest extant manuscripts, for the most part, are many decades removed from their autographs, and that since the autographs no longer exist, we cannot say with 100% certainty which language any of New Testament writings were originally written.

To me, at least, there's no damage to admitting the possibility. We already know the autographs don't appear to exist. That doesn't (tend to) concern anyone.

To think that the New Testament writings JUST HAD to begin in Greek and stay in Greek in order for them to still be inspired makes no sense.

I mean, we're all reading un-inspired English translations of whatever number edition of whoever's critical text. Additionally, we are all reading an un-inspired English translation of whatever number edition of whoever's critical text of an Old Testament functionally recreated by the Masorites in the Middle Ages.

So let's not act like it's such an attack on plenary inspiration to say that the extant Greek manuscripts, whether in part, or not, may only be translations.

Even our Lord and His Apostles used the LXX without compromise! And let's face it, the LXX is a mess of a translation (i.e. it wasn't and isn't inspired, either).
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