Traditional Matthew 28:19 is an interpolation 2

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by FlamingZword

This is a new thread that I am starting to inform those who want to have honest respectable debate about the issue of Matthew 28:19 being an interpolation.

In this thread I will not tolerate any demeaning or vicious attack upon my person. if anyone engages in such behavior I will not respond to such posts.
I am here to debate this issue and I will not tolerate any bashing of me.

Here are the rules,

1. No personal attacks upon my person or my motives.
2. There will no baseless accusations, so ask about something and do not assume things.
3. I do not mind honest questions and clear objections.
4. I don't have all the answers to everything, so sometimes my answer will be "I don't know"
5. I have a vast collection of information from over 15 years, I begun studying this issue sometime before 1999.
6. I will post information from what I have collected on my own or was sent to me.
7. Because I do not want to cite very long citations, I will sometimes shorten such citations for brevity sake.
8. I am human and therefore I might be mistaken in some things, so if I am mistaken about something I will correct it.
9. I open this new thread and will start from where I left of in my past postings. so if you want to catch up. you may go to my old threads.

You do understand that there are many scholars who believe that Revelation and 2 Thessalonians don't belong in the New Testament. But, what they can't refute is the physical evidence.

I asked you to produce the answers for the inability of translating key scriptures from Matthew from Greek into Hebrew/Aramaic. Was I mocking you? I thought I was being pretty gentle with my post. Yet, you continued to ignore. If Matthew was originally a Hebrew Only manuscript translated into Greek. I can't see it. Please show me and also with what you don't know, can that be a factor in your decision making?