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12-29-2019, 02:37 PM
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Join Date: Oct 2013
Location: WI
Posts: 5,540
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Re: Why Sunday
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Originally Posted by votivesoul
Going back for a moment regarding Sundays and the original references to the "first day of the week":
I see nine uses of that phrase in the KJV, as follows:
https://www.biblegateway.com/quickse...qs_version=KJV
- Matthew 28:1
- Mark 16:2
- Mark 16:9
- Luke 24:1
- John 20:1
- John 20:19
- Acts 20:7
- 1 Corinthians 16:2
I've already addressed Acts 20:7 and 1 Corinthians 16:2 and have shown how a change in translation seems warranted (See: here and here.)
The question then is, the other seven references from the Gospels. In each case, note that they refer to the empty tomb scene after Jesus was crucified and buried. Does this mean that this scene took place on a Sunday, Jesus having been crucified and buried on a Friday?
Traditionally, that is the consensus. But what if something else occurred? Note the following text from Matthew 28:1:
Ὀψὲ δὲ σαββάτων τῇ ἐπιφωσκούσῃ εἰς μίαν σαββάτων
( opse de sabbatōn tē epiphōskousē eis mian sabbatōn)
A literal reading is found here:
https://biblehub.com/interlinear/matthew/28-1.htm
But note, the Greek word sabbatōn is the same in both instances, and in both cases, is Genitive Neuter Plural. It would seem to make the most sense to translate each instance identically.
But instead we get: In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week...
Why the change? I think it's unnecessary to say the least. First, note as I said previously in post #10, that the Greek word for "day" isn't even in the text, it's supplied by the translators. That leaves us with mia the feminine form for the number 1 in Greek. Second, we must remember that for ancient Israel, they were commanded to keep certain festivals every year, one of them being Passover and another being Unleavened Bread.
These festivals were considered sabbaths of a sort, even if or though they did not fall upon the actual seventh day of the week. From Passover to the end of Unleavened Bread, every day was a high day, or special sabbath to the LORD (See Leviticus 23:1-8). It makes for a total of eight high days or special sabbaths. The first high day or special sabbath was on Passover. Then, seven more high days or special sabbaths lasting for the duration of Unleavened Bread were held.
This explains the reference in Matthew 28:1 regarding the first use of sabbatōn and why it's plural. It's a reference to the special week of special sabbaths that occurred during the first part of the festival.
From John 19:31, we know Jesus was crucified on the Preparation, that is, the day prior to the beginning of Passover, that is, the 13th day of the first month, otherwise in Hebrew called the Chagigah. Further, it need not be assumed that Jesus literally spent 72 hours in the grave. The custom of the times indicated that only a part of a day needs to pass for it to be considered one day. This is reasonable and makes sense to us, because if I say upon this very day, December 29th, 2019, that New Year's Eve is in three days, meaning I am counting today as one of the three, even though much of today has already passed as of this writing, I do not mean 72 exact hours. Because in actuality as of this writing, it's more like 33 hours, even though 33 hours doesn't exactly equal three days in the most literal sense.
The same is true for the Lord's time in the grave. So, if Jesus was crucified on a high day or special sabbath, that is, on the Preparation, the day before Passover, and was buried the same day, and he was, then spent all of the next high day or special sabbath of Passover in the tomb, and He did, and earlier the next morning rose from the dead, and He did, that makes for three days. It also makes it the morning of Unleavened Bread, the beginning of a new set of special sabbaths, which I submit to you, is the meaning of the second use of sabbatōn.
So, first plural use is for Preparation and Passover. Second plural use is for Unleavened Bread. Which means no Sunday in sight.
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For Mark 16:2, the text then should read "And early on the beginning of the sabbaths..." that is, referring to the seven "sabbaths' of Unleavened Bread, because again, sabbatōn is plural.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/mark/16-2.htm
But note Mark 16:9. The Greek here is different. Here we have sabbatou, which is Genitive Neuter Singular. This refers to the one day, the very first special sabbath of Unleavened Bread, the day Jesus rose from the dead.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/mark/16-9.htm
Luke 24:1 follows suit with Matthew 28:1. Sabbath is plural and refers to the beginning of Unleavened Bread as a set of seven high days or special sabbaths.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/luke/24-1.htm
John 20:1 follows Matthew 28:1 and Luke 24:1 regarding when Mary came to the tomb with various spices to anoint the Lord's body. It's again sabbatōn, which is plural, thus referring to the set of seven sabbaths of Unleavened Bread.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/20-1.htm
Finally, John 20:19 reads as follows:
Quote:
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Then the same day at evening...
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The evening of the same day as what? The evening of the same day as the day Mary went to the tomb, that is, the first of seven special sabbaths for Unleavened Bread. Here, sabbath is again plural.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/20-19.htm
So, to conclude, Jesus was crucified on the Preparation, the day before Passover. It was a high day, or a special sabbath. He was buried the same day. The next day was Passover, another special sabbath, according to Leviticus 23. Matthew 28:1's initial use of sabbatōn refers to these two days. Then, early on the first sabbath (note the singular) of a set of seven sabbaths (note the plural) God raised His Son from the dead. Subsequent to that raising, but on the exact same day, Mary came with spices to anoint Christ's body, not realizing it was already raised to life. Jesus appears to her in the morning of that day, then later on, shows Himself alive to the disciples per John 20:19.
So, again, no mention anywhere of Sunday or of some supposed first day of the week. It's all referring to the special sabbath days of Preparation, Passover, and Unleavened Bread. Now, it may be that the Preparation was a Friday, Passover was a Saturday, and Unleavened Bread began on Sunday, and that's the day Jesus rose from the dead, but that's not something that will really be known to us, and as far as the Holy Scriptures are concerned, it doesn't concern us at all. For all we know, Preparation was on a Tuesday, Passover was Wednesday, and Jesus rose on a Thursday, being the first day of Unleavened Bread.
It doesn't really matter, I think, what actual day of the week it was, because the Scriptures don't make it matter. Rather, we have bias in our translations, as far as I can tell, to, as I said initially, to deflect away from, or even conceal, an anti-Sabbath agenda. It's hard to see it any other way, when the Greek (coupled with a basic understanding of the festivals of Jehovah) is so clear.
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12-29-2019, 03:07 PM
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Unvaxxed Pureblood
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Join Date: Jul 2012
Location: Zion aka TEXAS
Posts: 26,945
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Re: Why Sunday
Quote:
Originally Posted by votivesoul
For Mark 16:2, the text then should read "And early on the beginning of the sabbaths..." that is, referring to the seven "sabbaths' of Unleavened Bread, because again, sabbatōn is plural.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/mark/16-2.htm
But note Mark 16:9. The Greek here is different. Here we have sabbatou, which is Genitive Neuter Singular. This refers to the one day, the very first special sabbath of Unleavened Bread, the day Jesus rose from the dead.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/mark/16-9.htm
Luke 24:1 follows suit with Matthew 28:1. Sabbath is plural and refers to the beginning of Unleavened Bread as a set of seven high days or special sabbaths.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/luke/24-1.htm
John 20:1 follows Matthew 28:1 and Luke 24:1 regarding when Mary came to the tomb with various spices to anoint the Lord's body. It's again sabbatōn, which is plural, thus referring to the set of seven sabbaths of Unleavened Bread.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/20-1.htm
Finally, John 20:19 reads as follows:
The evening of the same day as what? The evening of the same day as the day Mary went to the tomb, that is, the first of seven special sabbaths for Unleavened Bread. Here, sabbath is again plural.
See: https://biblehub.com/interlinear/john/20-19.htm
So, to conclude, Jesus was crucified on the Preparation, the day before Passover. It was a high day, or a special sabbath. He was buried the same day. The next day was Passover, another special sabbath, according to Leviticus 23. Matthew 28:1's initial use of sabbatōn refers to these two days. Then, early on the first sabbath (note the singular) of a set of seven sabbaths (note the plural) God raised His Son from the dead. Subsequent to that raising, but on the exact same day, Mary came with spices to anoint Christ's body, not realizing it was already raised to life. Jesus appears to her in the morning of that day, then later on, shows Himself alive to the disciples per John 20:19.
So, again, no mention anywhere of Sunday or of some supposed first day of the week. It's all referring to the special sabbath days of Preparation, Passover, and Unleavened Bread. Now, it may be that the Preparation was a Friday, Passover was a Saturday, and Unleavened Bread began on Sunday, and that's the day Jesus rose from the dead, but that's not something that will really be known to us, and as far as the Holy Scriptures are concerned, it doesn't concern us at all. For all we know, Preparation was on a Tuesday, Passover was Wednesday, and Jesus rose on a Thursday, being the first day of Unleavened Bread.
It doesn't really matter, I think, what actual day of the week it was, because the Scriptures don't make it matter. Rather, we have bias in our translations, as far as I can tell, to, as I said initially, to deflect away from, or even conceal, an anti-Sabbath agenda. It's hard to see it any other way, when the Greek (coupled with a basic understanding of the festivals of Jehovah) is so clear.
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Interesting. Would this mean the first day of the week is never mentioned in Scripture at all? How would you say "first of the week" in Greek?
Also, tradition and history are unanimous that Jesus rose the day after the seventh day Sabbath. If that is not what happened, what evidence is there available that points in that direction?
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