[QUOTE]
Quote:
Originally Posted by Truly Blessed
There is no Scriptural basis for saying the blood is applied to us personally when we are baptized. The blood is appropriated by faith, not applied through obedience as some teach. Faith precedes obedience and therefore the blood is appropriated prior to obedience. Otherwise we could not even approach God. The Bible is clear in setting forth the blood as a cleansing and covering for our sins so we can approach God with a holy standing. I cannot understand anyone believing that sinful man can enter into a relationship with God apart from the blood, which according to the PAJC position isn't even "applied" until baptism.
|
I agree the blood is for cleansing and covering of our sins. It is just as clear when our sins are remitted/forgiven/washed away, in water baptism. So putting the two together, blood and water baptism, seems to fit. I'm still not sure what you mean by appropriated.
Which definition are you using for appropriate?
1 : to take exclusive possession of : ANNEX <no one should appropriate a common benefit>
2 : to set apart for or assign to a particular purpose or use <appropriate money for the research program>
3 : to take or make use of without authority or right
To appropriate seems to mean it is something we do, we take possession, as opposed to something God does when He washes away our sins. I may be misunderstanding what you mean by appropriate, because, like Barb, I have never heard this teaching until now. I've heard Baptists teach they are saved by grace through faith. And to reconcile the necessity of having the Spirit of Christ to be one of His, they include receiving Christ upon faith and say the baptism of the Spirit is an added blessing. They also explain away the verses that explicitly teach water baptism is needed to be saved.Mr 16:16
Tit 3:5 1Pe 3:21 Do you agree with the Baptists teachings? and if you do, how do you explain
Acts 8 and 9, the conversions of Paul and the Samaritans? ?They each believed but received the Holy Ghost at a later date?
The highlighted part in your quote, I believe, must be proved by scripture. You have asserted it and I've heard Felicity say about the same thing at the GNC, but I haven't see verses of scripture to back it up. I think you are saying for a person to receive the Spirit of God, that person must have their sins forgiven. So if forgivness happens at water baptism, then how can a HOLY Spirit dwell within a person who is yet in their sins. Am I correct? But once a man repents, is he still sinful? Once he repents hasn't he turned from sin and is now seeking God to walk in His paths. Is faith in Christ and a change of heart enough to allow God to fill a person with his Holy Spirit?
Acts 10.
My soul followeth hard after thee....Love one another with a pure heart fervently. 
Hybrid Mode
