Is the Father the Son?

Originally Posted by Kansas Preacher

Since you refused to answer my question until I answered yours, I will do the same. I am still waiting on an answer. Please explain how you rectify an "eternal Son" being "eternally sent" with the phrase "WHEN THE FULLNESS OF THE TIME WAS COME."

Galatians 4:4 does not say, "God sent forth His son and THEN the Son was made of a woman." If you are basing your interpretation of this verse on the order of the phrases contained in it, then:

1. The fullness of the time came
2. God sent forth His Son
3. His Son was made of a woman.

This interpretation begs the question: When was the "fullness of the time"? Furthermore, I ask again, how do you reconcile that SPECIFIC reference to a POINT IN TIME to an "eternal Son?"

Define what you mean by "fullness of time has come" because to me its talking about the time God needed to send us a Savior. And sent forth, as I already posted means that He was sent away from somewhere.

NASEC: exapostellō; from G1537 and G649; to send forth or away: - send...away (1),

Strong's: From G1537 and G649; to send away forth, that is, (on a mission) to despatch,


The Son was sent forth, or sent away from a place...on a mission. How many scripture is needed to show that Jesus came down from heaven?

Joh 6:38 "For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me.
Joh 6:39 "This is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day.

Joh 13:3 Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into His hands, and that He had come forth from God and was going back to God,

Pastor, please tell me what this is literally telling us? Is Jesus going back to God as the scripture states?