Quote:
Originally Posted by Dr. Vaughn
You render a commentators opinion as your source?
I will stay with the Word... I GAVE THEE THY NEIGHBORS WIVES>.. and you know how I know he took the,...... God said they were in Davids BOSOM
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How about another commentator ?
JFB
2Sa 12:8
I gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives — The phraseology means nothing more than that God in His providence had given David, as king of Israel, everything that was Saul’s. The history furnishes conclusive evidence that he never actually married any of the wives of Saul. But the harem of the preceding king belongs, according to Oriental notions, as a part of the regalia to his successor.
Clarke
2Sa 12:8
Thy master’s wives into thy bosom - Perhaps this means no more than that he had given him absolute power over every thing possessed by Saul; and as it was the custom for the new king to succeed even to the wives and concubines, the whole harem of the deceased king, so it was in this case; and the possession of the wives was a sure proof that he had got all regal rights. But could David, as the son-in-law of Saul, take the wives of his father-in-law? However, we find delicacy was seldom consulted in these cases; and Absalom lay with his own father’s wives in the most public manner, to show that he had seized on the kingdom, because the wives of the preceding belonged to the succeeding king, and to none other.
2Sa 12:11 Thus saith the LORD, Behold, I will raise up evil against thee out of thine own house, and I will take thy wives before thine eyes, and give them unto thy neighbour, and he shall lie with thy wives in the sight of this sun.
2Sa 12:12 For thou didst it secretly: but I will do this thing before all Israel, and before the sun.
You cannot say God gave( as in a good gift ) Just as he allowed David to be king , He was procaiming the coming judgement. In no way condoning polygamy.
jl
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