God Does Not Use The "works Of The Devil"

Cindy · #1 06-23-2008, 10:31 PM

Lar is right in his premise of this thread. He did not say that God didn't use sinners. He said He does not use the "works" of the devil.

ReformedDave · #2 06-24-2008, 04:22 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by cneasttx

Lar is right in his premise of this thread. He did not say that God didn't use sinners. He said He does not use the "works" of the devil.

God uses the 'works' of the devil. Sickness in the form of paralysis of the lame man that Jesus healed. Jesus said that the man's sickness was so that Christ could raise him up.

Bro-Larry · #3 06-24-2008, 05:53 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by ReformedDave

God uses the 'works' of the devil. Sickness in the form of paralysis of the lame man that Jesus healed. Jesus said that the man's sickness was so that Christ could raise him up.

WADR: Bro ReformedDave, That's your interpretation of what it says, but I don't believe that's what it says.

The word says God is no respector of persons, God could not be righteous if He had made that man blind, even in order to heal him. Furthermore where would God get the blindness? He would have to steal it from the devil, in order to make the man be born blind.

Besides all that, man put in the punctuation marks. If you move some punctuation marks, it can say something totally different.

Bro-Larry · #4 06-25-2008, 06:22 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by ReformedDave

God uses the 'works' of the devil. Sickness in the form of paralysis of the lame man that Jesus healed. Jesus said that the man's sickness was so that Christ could raise him up.

Could you tell me where this story is?