"All things are lawful"

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

From a non-OSAS standpoint how does one deal with this verse by Paul.

1Co 6:12 "All things are lawful for me," but not all things are helpful. "All things are lawful for me," but I will not be enslaved by anything.

1Co 10:23 "All things are lawful," but not all things are helpful. "All things are lawful," but not all things build up.

I have my own opinion but would like to seek the knowledge of the people on the board which cover many views.

Thanks!

I just addressed this, You have to look at what Paul said in context. In one case he was speaking of eating foods offered to idols. He was also speaking of meats and other things that some believers would stumble if they knew you were eating. Read back to Acts 15 and the issue of Jews, Gentiles and the law. The gentiles were told to keep certain food laws because there were Jewish believers or potential jewish believers in each city. Paul warns we can eat these things but if it causes a brother to stumble we should not.

A second more exact meaning is, we are not bound by the law. All things are lawful to him (as a jew), but not keeping the law in some cases might not be a good idea. He said in the same context then, to the Jew he becomes a jew, to the gentiles he is a gentile etc etc

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by Praxeas

I just addressed this, You have to look at what Paul said in context. In one case he was speaking of eating foods offered to idols. He was also speaking of meats and other things that some believers would stumble if they knew you were eating. Read back to Acts 15 and the issue of Jews, Gentiles and the law. The gentiles were told to keep certain food laws because there were Jewish believers or potential jewish believers in each city. Paul warns we can eat these things but if it causes a brother to stumble we should not.

A second more exact meaning is, we are not bound by the law. All things are lawful to him (as a jew), but not keeping the law in some cases might not be a good idea. He said in the same context then, to the Jew he becomes a jew, to the gentiles he is a gentile etc etc

sorry but here is the problem with that in reference to Acts I never said it was Gentiles Paul took but Jewish brethren. Here is the big things....

The gentiles should keep THESE things(being 4) so not to offend the Jews but as you had said they could do these things as they are free or lawful... now. WELL then how do you explain the sexual immorality part? I guess it is lawful as it is in the same context. So as long as people you are around are not offended, HIT IT!

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

sorry but here is the problem with that in reference to Acts I never said it was Gentiles Paul took but Jewish brethren. Here is the big things....

The gentiles should keep THESE things(being 4) so not to offend the Jews but as you had said they could do these things as they are free or lawful... now. WELL then how do you explain the sexual immorality part? I guess it is lawful as it is in the same context. So as long as people you are around are not offended HIT IT!

huh? I never said one thing about Paul taking gentiles to do anything. Please re-read what i said and the read Acts 15 not Acts 21

My post has absolutely NOTHING to do with what happened in Acts 21, however it does support my post in that the Jews kept the law and Paul would become a Jew to the Jews and a gentile to the gentiles.

Again please re-read what I posted again and if you disagree can you quote me and then refute what I said specifically? I pointed out Paul explains the food issue and it is IN the very context of the verse you posted about lawful. You are quoting that out of context. Look at the context as I tried to explain it to you.

Sorry but I just don't see the problem my post has from what you posted here

Paul NEVER said they can fornicate if nobody is around.