Polygamy in the Bible

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by erikwebster

The Epistles were written to address specific situations in the churches they were sent to typically.

Since Paul told them that leadership could only have one wife deductive logic would tell you he didn't waste good ink and parchment without a reason dealing with that exact issue.

Hence it was present in the early church in some form.

Again "one" can me first! You are arguing from silence. The precedent from ALL of scripture is it was ok before God. Also you are saying God changed his nature and view of marriage and now is calling it sin thus GOD sinned in the past as now his nature has changed toward marriage!

[MissBrattified]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

Again "one" can me first! You are arguing from silence. The precedent from ALL of scripture is it was ok before God. Also you are saying God changed his nature and view of marriage and now is calling it sin thus GOD sinned in the past as now his nature has changed toward marriage!

Did you actually read erik's post? LOL!!!!

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by MissBrattified

Did you actually read erik's post? LOL!!!!

Have you read his previous posts? Also because he says it was in the church in SOME form does not mean it was not due to many new converts in multiple marriages. Also his point of "ONE" is not necessarily true that was my other point! Also I was responding to BENI as well which did not show up in the included text for some reason.

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by LUKE2447

Have you read his previous posts? Also because he says it was in the church in SOME form does not mean it was not due to many new converts in multiple marriages. Also his point of "ONE" is not necessarily true that was my other point! Also I was responding to BENI as well which did not show up in the included text for some reason.

I wonder why?

[LUKE2447]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

I wonder why?

???? I am used to all the qoutes being included. Not sure your point!