The references to the Second Coming of Jesus Christ left in the context of scripture with the authors original intent in mind demands a 1st Century Coming, specifically within the generation of Jesus Christ. To determine when the Coming was/will be, let's define what a Coming is, biblically. Pay careful attention to text, context, and intent of the author.
Isa 13:1, 4, 10-11, 19-20
(1)
The burden of Babylon, which Isaiah the son of Amoz did see.
(4) The noise of a multitude in the mountains, like as of a great people; a tumultuous noise of
the kingdoms of nations gathered together: the LORD of hosts mustereth the host of the battle.
(10) For
the stars of heaven... constellations...shall not give their light: the sun shall be ...darkened ... the moon shall not cause her light to shine.
(11) And I will punish
the world for their evil, and the wicked for their iniquity; and I will cause the arrogancy of the proud to cease, and will lay low the haughtiness of the terrible.
(19) And
Babylon, the glory of kingdoms, the beauty of the Chaldees' excellency, shall be as when
God overthrew Sodom and Gomorrah.
(20)
It shall never be inhabited, neither shall it be dwelt in from generation to generation: neither shall the Arabian pitch tent there; neither shall the shepherds make their fold there.
This is a prophecy against Babylon. Context shows the Coming of the Lord in judgment on Babylon. Intent of the author, to foretell the overthrow of Babylon. This is a biblical Coming of the Lord. Babylon did experience the presence of our Lord.
Notice some ingredients of this Coming:
The Lord gathered the kingdoms of nations together for his Coming.
The sun, moon, and stars stopped shinning.
The world was punished for evil.
Babylon would no longer be inhabited.
This is the way that all the Comings of the Lord have been:
Examples,
Isaiah 34:1-17;
Eze. 32:1-10.
This is vitally important in understanding New Testament references of the Coming of the Lord. Jesus, speaking of His Coming, used the exact or similar language when speaking to his followers about His Coming. How one can change meanings of prophetic language used in both Testaments to say that they have different meanings, when text, context, and authors intent are the same is beyond me. This is exactly what I expect Jason to do. Readers, your responsibility is to not allow this.
Jesus' Coming is understood by his previous Comings in the Old Testament.
Luk 21:23-24
(23) But woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck, in those days! for there shall be great distress in the land, and wrath upon this people.
(24) And they shall fall by the edge of the sword, and shall be led away captive into all nations: and Jerusalem shall be trodden down of the Gentiles, until the times of the Gentiles be fulfilled.
Luk 21:20
(20) And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh.
Mat 24:29
(29) Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:
Luk 17:29-30
(29) But the same day that Lot went out of Sodom it rained fire and brimstone from heaven, and destroyed them all.
(30) Even thus shall it be in the day when the Son of man is revealed.
Rev 18:21-24
(21) ...Thus with violence shall that great city Babylon be thrown down, and shall be found no more at all.
(22) ...voice of harpers, and musicians, and of pipers, and trumpeters,...no craftsman, of whatsoever craft he be...the sound of a millstone shall be heard no more at all in thee...
(23) ...the light of a candle shall shine no more at all in thee...voice of the bridegroom and of the bride shall be heard no more at all in thee...
(24) And in her was found the blood of prophets, and of saints, and of all that were slain upon the earth.
This Coming was in judgment.
Hybrid Mode
