diversity?

[proudfather]

Originally Posted by pelathais

Therefore the experience was different. And, from the account in Acts 2, it would appear that not just "some" understood - but collectively, the 120 were speaking in the known and recognizable languages of the several nations listed.

This never happens in our churches. I know, I've heard contrary claims, but until it can be demonstrated I will assert that it NEVER happens.

It happened to my grandfather. It happens to missionary's as allstate pointed out. It still happens my friend. So experience is based upon what you hear? What if Pentecostals feel the same thing as those in the upper room felt on the D.O.P.? Is the experience still different?

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by proudfather

It happened to my grandfather. It happens to missionary's as allstate pointed out. It still happens my friend. So experience is based upon what you hear? What if Pentecostals feel the same thing as those in the upper room felt on the D.O.P.? Is the experience still different?

In a life time spent within Pentecostal circles I have never heard this nor have I ever been in a meeting where it was claimed to have taken place. I have had friends who claimed that it happened in their presence, but it was never a language they understood. No one has ever produced any evidence of this happening.

I try to be polite and open to every possibility - but this one just has no basis; otherwise the links and the evidence would have already filled this forum.

The question remains unanswered: How can we say that the current Pentecostal experience of speaking in tongues is identical to that described in Acts 2?

[proudfather]

Originally Posted by pelathais

In a life time spent within Pentecostal circles I have never heard this nor have I ever been in a meeting where it was claimed to have taken place. I have had friends who claimed that it happened in their presence, but it was never a language they understood. No one has ever produced any evidence of this happening.

I try to be polite and open to every possibility - but this one just has no basis; otherwise the links and the evidence would have already filled this forum.

The question remains unanswered: How can we say that the current Pentecostal experience of speaking in tongues is identical to that described in Acts 2?

And I respond with the same question in a different form. How can we not say that the current Pentecostal experience of speaking in tongues is identical to that described in Acts 2?

BTW, if you want to get specific, the Holy Ghost was not poured out in identical fashion in Acts 10 or 19. I will admit that most Pentecostal services do not represent the original upper room experience verbatim. However, we can still feel what they felt, though the exact results may not be the same. We could probably have an identical experience, but the key to Acts 2 is "they were all with one accord in one place." As this forum proves, Pentecostals/Apostolics have a hard time getting in one accord. Maybe that's why we don't read of an IDENTICAL experience happening again. We CAN still speak in tongues and we CAN experience the same feelings that those in the room felt. Unless you were present that day, you can not tell me what the 120 people felt.