UPC Pastor Convicted of Slander in Pulpit!

[jfrog]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

This is what I am speculating as well. The only thing is, it would not, could not and did not stand up in a secular court of law.

Do you agree that if the pastor really thought she did commit adultery that it is a far cry from saying that she actually did anything wrong in relation to her marriage?

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by jfrog

Do you agree that if the pastor really thought she did commit adultery that it is a far cry from saying that she actually did anything wrong in relation to her marriage?

I honestly think that, because he is a strict standards teacher, he felt her behavior was "intent" to commit adultery, which to him is adultery. He might have felt she was doing that, but couldn't prove it and thinking he couldn't conceive how she wouldn't be, dressed in that way. If he is very strict on standards, he would view that as promiscuous behavior and extremely suspect.

It's just that he could take a Biblical stance against that in his church, but it would never hold up in a secular court of law, which it didn't.

Did you see one of my posts on Adam Clark's definition of "fornication"? He said that fornication is connected with adultery and means "illicit connection between single or unmarried persons; yet often signifying adultery also." Illicit is defined as "contrary to accepted morality".

So, I am wondering if we are trying to define fornication as only the actual act. Adam Clark seems to think it also includes anything that is "contrary to accepted morality."

What do you think about that?

[MrsMcD]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

I honestly think that, because he is a strict standards teacher, he felt her behavior was "intent" to commit adultery, which to him is adultery. He might have felt she was doing that, but couldn't prove it and thinking he couldn't conceive how she wouldn't be, dressed in that way. If he is very strict on standards, he would view that as promiscuous behavior and extremely suspect.

It's just that he could take a Biblical stance against that in his church, but it would never hold up in a secular court of law, which it didn't.

Did you see one of my posts on Adam Clark's definition of "fornication"? He said that fornication is connected with adultery and means "illicit connection between single or unmarried persons; yet often signifying adultery also." Illicit is defined as "contrary to accepted morality".

So, I am wondering if we are trying to define fornication as only the actual act. Adam Clark seems to think it also includes anything that is "contrary to accepted morality."

What do you think about that?

Exactly PO!