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Old 08-09-2010, 10:39 AM
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Re: Why Acts 2:38?

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Originally Posted by jfrog View Post
So they were joint heirs with Christ before being baptized but somehow not saved? Very interesting...
Q: To whom was the letter in Romans addressed?

A: Romans 1:7 "To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ."
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Old 08-09-2010, 10:41 AM
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Re: Why Acts 2:38?

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Originally Posted by Pressing-On View Post
Q: To whom was the letter in Romans addressed?

A: Romans 1:7 "To all that be in Rome, beloved of God, called to be saints: Grace to you and peace from God our Father, and the Lord Jesus Christ."
Q: Who does Romans 8:14 say meets the conditions to be the sons of God?
A: To as many as are led by the Spirit of God.
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Old 08-09-2010, 10:44 AM
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Re: Why Acts 2:38?

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Originally Posted by jfrog View Post
Q: Who does Romans 8:14 say meets the conditions to be the sons of God?
A: To as many as are led by the Spirit of God.
Q: Does Romans 1:7 address the saints that be in Rome in order to be in context with Acts 8:14?

A: Yes.
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Old 08-09-2010, 10:54 AM
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Re: Why Acts 2:38?

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Originally Posted by Pressing-On View Post
Q: Does Romans 1:7 address the saints that be in Rome in order to be in context with Acts 8:14?

A: Yes.
Example:

To PO, as many as are Christians, they pray.
To AFF, as many as are Christians, they pray.
To the saints at Rome, as many as are Christians, they pray.
To the sinners, as many as are Christians, they pray.

Such a statement is true regardless of who is being spoken to. In fact, who is being spoken to is irrelevant for the context of such a statement because the statement means the same thing regardless of who is being spoken to. Romans 8:14 is set up with this same structure and thus would mean the same thing regardless if it was being said to the saints at Rome or the sinners at Rome.
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