Quote:
Originally Posted by keith4him
In essence Matthews version of the command was to baptize individuals into the name (Jesus) of the God who is Father, Son and Holy Spirit.
On another note, the name Lord Jesus Christ actually fulfills the Matthew 28:19 commandment.
Lord-Adonani/Jehovah/Father
Jesus-Son
Christ-Holy Spirit, anointed one |
Keith, your simply stating this doesn't constitute any proof, and you need to PROVE your claims from the Bible. Secondly, nowhere anywhere int he book of Acts dowe ever find any baptismal formula referred to with the brief exception of
Acts 19:2-3.
Personally, I wouldn't even regard any of these four verses as true baptismal passages, for taking
Acts 2:38 by way of example, the actual baptisms took place at
Acts 2:41 and not at 2:38 as you’ve claimed, which merely commands baptism. So verse 38 is a ‘dry’ verse without water.
Acts 2:38. In (epi) ..... Jesus Christ
Acts 8. In (eis) .... Lord Jesus
Acts 10:48. In (en) ..... Lord.
Acts 19. In (eis) …. Lord Jesus.
Please do tell me Keith how can this be a fixed baptismal formula, which is so important that our very salvation depends upon it's exact usage, when these passages vary so widely? I believe that the Greek ‘onoma’ translated here as ‘name,’ implies the authority for baptism. We certainly have a precedent, for ‘name’ (onoma) is directly associated with authority / power at
Acts 4:7.
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