Mark of the Beast may be only 2 1/2 years away

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Bowas

I hear that alot in my teachings. "The prophecies of Revelation could not have happened, because (fill in the blank) has not happened yet, therefore, shortly, at hand, time is at hand, time statements, are not really."
That is one flaw so many do, and that is judge a prophecy, by what they interpret it to mean. Many of those in Israel today, do not believe Jesus came as Messiah/Saviour 2000 years ago, merely because he didn't come the way they thought, but we all know he did. So who is right?

The position should not be, the time is not when it clearly declared it would, but how did it happen during the time it was declared it would.

I know, now comes the. "well, if it did happen in the first century, why, or how do (fill in the blank) occur?

First one has to accept the basic foundation...the time statements found throughout the book, and elsewhere in the New Testament, and they are there for a reason, not for private interpretations.

But you did not address the 2 main points I brought up:

1. If the Final Judgment already happened, then upon what basis do you believe there is any future judgment for individuals?

And,

2. If the at hand time statements mean a prophecy is to be fulfilled within a very short time (40 years?) then what about Deut 32?

[Amanah]

As far as all prophecies being fulfilled, the resurrection and millennial reign has not yet happened.

We are still waiting for the millennial reign for even though Ephesians 1 tells us all things are under Jesus feet, we have not yet been resurrected to rule and reign with Jesus.

Hebrews tells us not everything is in subjection.

Hebrews 2:
6 It has been testified somewhere, "What is man, that you are mindful of him, or the son of man, that you care for him?
7 You made him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned him with glory and honor,
8 putting everything in subjection under his feet."Now in putting everything in subjection to him, he left nothing outside his control. At present, we do not yet see everything in subjection to him.

[Bowas]

Originally Posted by Esaias

But you did not address the 2 main points I brought up:

1. If the Final Judgment already happened, then upon what basis do you believe there is any future judgment for individuals?

And,

2. If the at hand time statements mean a prophecy is to be fulfilled within a very short time (40 years?) then what about Deut 32?

When I do teach on the overall view of the Book of Revelation, I always start with verse 1, and show how it frames the entire book, and the entire book agrees with the first verse.

I then go through all the time statements found in that book, and tell those I am teaching to, for the time being, do not try to do any interpretations of the symbols of the book, but to just see that there was a sense of urgency of the message for those in that region back then to whom it was addressed.

I then do a walk through of other New Testament verses, to see if Jesus and the Apostles concurred of the time statements, and go through many, many verses that demand a short time frame for the fulfillments.

We go through the "this generation," the "last times/last days" the "end of the world," etc. verses that are all through the writings of the New, and by the tie I go through 20 or 30 verses, most finally agree the end of all things was fully expected by them then, and now that that has been at least nominally agreed upon, we can then start going through what the interpretations meant to them, because until their is at least a small window of that understanding, nothing will make sense to a mind with a pre-determined interpretation.

[coksiw]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Which means all these churches and all these professing Christians who support the modern state of Israel "because they are God's chosen people" are literally IN LEAGUE WITH THE ANTICHRIST.

Does that shock you? Did you not expect the last days to be days of massive deception? When satan's sycophants would put on quite the show of being God's holy saints?

John 16:2 KJV
They shall put you out of the synagogues: yea, the time cometh, that whosoever killeth you will think that he doeth God service.


Did anyone really expect the antichrist to look like Doctor Evil or something?

That's the one million dollar question

I was always convinced that the antichrist was going to be a very strong temptation to join. Otherwise, it wouldn't be such a deception that would deceive even some elect.

22..For false christs and false prophets will rise and show signs and wonders to deceive, if possible, even the elect.
NKJV Mk 13:21–22.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Bowas

When I do teach on the overall view of the Book of Revelation, I always start with verse 1, and show how it frames the entire book, and the entire book agrees with the first verse.

I then go through all the time statements found in that book, and tell those I am teaching to, for the time being, do not try to do any interpretations of the symbols of the book, but to just see that there was a sense of urgency of the message for those in that region back then to whom it was addressed.

I then do a walk through of other New Testament verses, to see if Jesus and the Apostles concurred of the time statements, and go through many, many verses that demand a short time frame for the fulfillments.

We go through the "this generation," the "last times/last days" the "end of the world," etc. verses that are all through the writings of the New, and by the tie I go through 20 or 30 verses, most finally agree the end of all things was fully expected by them then, and now that that has been at least nominally agreed upon, we can then start going through what the interpretations meant to them, because until their is at least a small window of that understanding, nothing will make sense to a mind with a pre-determined interpretation.

Do you believe that people who die after the 1st century AD face a judgment, for good or bad?

Do you believe Deut 32 was fulfilled in Joshua's lifetime?

[Evang.Benincasa]

Originally Posted by Esaias

Proof that the author of the article does not understand Bible prophecy:

Deuteronomy 31:28-29 KJV
Gather unto me all the elders of your tribes, and your officers, that I may speak these words in their ears, and call heaven and earth to record against them. [29] For I know that after my death ye will utterly corrupt yourselves, and turn aside from the way which I have commanded you; and evil will befall you in the latter days; because ye will do evil in the sight of the LORD, to provoke him to anger through the work of your hands.

When did evil befall Israel because of their sins? When were these "latter days" Moses spoke of? Why, they began shortly after the death of Joshua, and yet appear again and again through Israel's history. This prophecy is NOT limited to the first century AD, clearly.

But let's look at the prophecy itself:

Deuteronomy 32:35 KJV
To me belongeth vengeance, and recompence; their foot shall slide in due time: for the day of their calamity is at hand, and the things that shall come upon them make haste.

Before they even entered the Promised Land, Moses prophesied that the day of their calamity and doom "was at hand", and that the things that shall come upon them "make haste". These are time statements that, if interpreted according to the hermeneutic of the article's author, would place the fulfillment of Deut 32 within less than say 40-50 years of Moses' death. Yet everyone knows that is not what happened at all. Deut 32 is a prophetic warning about the consequences of Israel backsliding, culminating in the destruction national sovereignty and the scattering and enslavement of the people by foreigners. Which did not happen until beginning in the 8th century BC for the ten tribed House of Israel and the 6th century for the House of Judah. And which was repeated under Rome in AD 70. (And again around 132 AD.) So a prophecy which is stated to be "at hand" and to "make haste" (ie be SOON) did not find it's fulfillment until over 1000 years later.

Therefore, the author does not understand Bible prophecy and how prophetic time statements are to be interpreted. And therefore the author is not in a position to speak authoritatively about Revelation and its fulfillment (or lack thereof).

The article says "...the event in Revelation must have happened soon after the book was written. After all, John said the events would happen soon, for the time was at hand (Rev. 1:1–3, 22:6–10). There’s just no (honest) way around the time indicators." If the author is correct, then the events described in Deut 32 must have happened soon after Moses gave his speech. After all, Moses said the events "make haste" and the time was "at hand". There's just no (honest) way around the time indicators." Right?

Deuteronomy 31 and 32 was for who?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Evang.Benincasa

Deuteronomy 31 and 32 was for who?

Deuteronomy 31:19-21 KJV
Now therefore write ye this song for you, and teach it the children of Israel: put it in their mouths, that this song may be a witness for me against the children of Israel. [20] For when I shall have brought them into the land which I sware unto their fathers, that floweth with milk and honey; and they shall have eaten and filled themselves, and waxen fat; then will they turn unto other gods, and serve them, and provoke me, and break my covenant. [21] And it shall come to pass, when many evils and troubles are befallen them, that this song shall testify against them as a witness; for it shall not be forgotten out of the mouths of their seed: for I know their imagination which they go about, even now, before I have brought them into the land which I sware.

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by Esaias

But you did not address the 2 main points I brought up:

1. If the Final Judgment already happened, then upon what basis do you believe there is any future judgment for individuals?

I think Bowas may be misunderstanding what exactly my question here is. I am NOT saying "the Final Judgment did not happen because it cannot have happened." What "i am saying is this - IF the Biblical "final judgment" of the dead has already occurred, then what basis does anyone have for thinking there would be any other judgment for men after they die? Does the Bible speak of final judgments after the final judgment of the dead?

If a person believes the general judgment of the dead described in the Bible has already happened, and ALSO believes that anyone who dies AFTER that judgment has taken place nevertheless still faces an after death judgment, then WHY? Why do they believe that? They cannot point to the scriptures that speak of judgment, since those have all been relegated to an already done event. So where then is the evidence upon which to base our faith in a future after death judgment with rewards and punishments?

Does the Bible speak of a general judgment of mankind OTHER THAN the one spoken of in the New Testament? Does the Bible clearly identify a general judgment of all the dead in AD 70, and then another general judgment of everybody else at some point in the future?

I hope my question is clear. I am simply asking for "what is the text or data point to support belief in a still future after death judgment and state of reward and punishment for those who missed the divine court date in the first century?

[Esaias]

Originally Posted by BroGary

Thought that you all might appreciate being aware of this urgent alert -

Why I Think the Mark of the Beast may be only 2 1/2 years away
Prophecy Newsbreak May 18, 2022
(Ken Raggio)

8 months to go?

[Nicodemus1968]

Originally Posted by Amanah

As far as all prophecies being fulfilled, the resurrection and millennial reign has not yet happened.

We are still waiting for the millennial reign for even though Ephesians 1 tells us all things are under Jesus feet, we have not yet been resurrected to rule and reign with Jesus.

Hebrews tells us not everything is in subjection.

Hebrews 2:
6 It has been testified somewhere, "What is man, that you are mindful of him, or the son of man, that you care for him?
7 You made him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned him with glory and honor,
8 putting everything in subjection under his feet."Now in putting everything in subjection to him, he left nothing outside his control. At present, we do not yet see everything in subjection to him.

Sis, you're talking about the 1000 year reign. What about....

Dueteronomy 7:9
"Know therefore that the Lord thy God, he is God, the faithful God, which keepeth covenant and mercy with them that love him and keep his commandments to a thousand generations."

Its beens said a generation is 30 or 40 years, that would mean his mercy to his followers could 30-40 thousand years. The 1000 year reign looks mighty small compared to a 1000 generations.