IT is the Holy Ghost!

Originally Posted by Praxeas

Deseret was the one that said God's Spirit had a Y chromosome that he passed on to Jesus.

Those words did not come from my keyboard.

[SDG]

As an aside ... the New King James Version ... doesn't use it to refer the Spirit of Christ in the old KJV 1 Peter 1:11 reference used by our superior resident scholar ...

11 searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of Christ who was in them was indicating when He testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

As an aside ... the New King James Version ... doesn't use it to refer the Spirit of Christ in the old KJV 1 Peter 1:11 reference used by our superior resident scholar ...

11 searching what, or what manner of time, the Spirit of Christ who was in them was indicating when He testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ and the glories that would follow.

That's an incorrect translation. The pronoun is neuter and actually the word you originally brought up is the neuter article "to" which is translated "who" here and "which".

[SDG]

The New King James Version, as the NIV, NAS, doesn't use "it" .. either ... for the old KJV Isaiah 34:16 text cited by Eliseus ...

16 “ Search from the book of the LORD, and read:
Not one of these shall fail;
Not one shall lack her mate.
For My mouth has commanded it, and His Spirit has gathered them.

NKJV

The question begs to be asked why the change?

Me thinks I know the answer.

[SDG]

Let's go for the tri-fecta ...

The New King James version doesn't use "it" either for the old KJV John 1:32 text used by Eliseus ...

32 And John bore witness, saying, “I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and He remained upon Him.

WHY THE CHANGE IN THE NKJV??? .... DID THEY NOT WANT TO PROPERLY CALL GOD AN "IT", TOO? ... DON'T THEY KNOW ABOUT THE THIRD PERSON NEUTER AND THAT SOME OPs LIKE CALLING THE HOLY SPIRIT AN IT?

DIDN'T THEY REALIZE THAT THE OLD KJV ... WAS GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT ????... AND THAT PRAXEAS AND ELISEUS [and Mizpeh, too] WOULD DO THEIR BEST TO JUSTIFY IT USING THE GREEK OUT OF CONTEXT W/ THE REST OF SCRIPTURE????

ANYONE????

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Let's go for the tri-fecta ...

The New King James version doesn't use "it" either for the old KJV John 1:32 text used by Eliseus ...

32 And John bore witness, saying, “I saw the Spirit descending from heaven like a dove, and He remained upon Him.

WHY THE CHANGE IN THE NKJV??? .... DID THEY NOT WANT TO PROPERLY CALL GOD AN "IT", TOO? ... DON'T THEY KNOW ABOUT THE THIRD PERSON NEUTER AND THAT SOME OPs LIKE CALLING THE HOLY SPIRIT AN IT?

DIDN'T THEY REALIZE THAT THE OLD KJV ... WAS GRAMMATICALLY CORRECT ????... AND THAT PRAXEAS AND ELISEUS [and Mizpeh, too] WOULD DO THEIR BEST TO JUSTIFY IT USING THE GREEK OUT OF CONTEXT W/ THE REST OF SCRIPTURE????

ANYONE????

As I pointed out before, there is NO pronoun at all in that verse. It's fine translating it without either IT or HE, yet the NKJV put HE for some reason...gee could it be because they are Trinitarians trying to prove the third person of the Trinity?

And yes it CAN be translated IT because the noun is neuter. Are you in support of translating based on doctrinal bias or translation based on what the text actually says?

And it is NOT out of context with the rest of scriptures. The Spirit is the Divine ESSENCE of being of God. That is WHAT God is. God is Spirit. You receive His Divine Nature when you revceive His Spirit.

God as to Person is called a HE. God's Divine Essence of being is not

[SDG]

The New King James Version, The New International Version, the New American Standard version, the original Greek, Hebrew don't use "it" or "she" but rather masculine pronouns for a God who has revealed Himself to us throughout scripture in a masculine concept and form ... yet there seems to be a desire to intellectualize ... the obvious.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

The New King James Version, The New International Version, the New American Standard version, the original Greek, Hebrew don't use "it" or "she" but rather masculine pronouns for a God who has revealed Himself to us throughout scripture in a masculine concept and form ... yet there seems to be a desire to intellectualize ... the obvious.

We are not talking about the word God but the word Spirit and YES IT DOES use the word IT. I already posted the verses several times and each time you have ignored it for some odd reason.

Additionally you don't even know any pronouns were present and were not just added by the translators, who might have added a HE because the noun is masculine. However I don't see anywhere in the bible where masculine pronouns are used of Spirit either.

[SDG]

Eliseus' first post:

So, in short, there is both Biblical and grammatical precedent for using 'it' in reference to the Holy Spirit

Not!!! Only in the flawed old KJV translation...

Really now.

[Praxeas]

Originally Posted by Daniel Alicea

Eliseus' first post:

Not!!! Only in the flawed old KJV translation...

Really now.

This will be like the 5th time or so I have posted these verses

First of all the masculine translations are ADDING to the text because no masculine pronouns exist.

Second His Spirit is not His Person but His essence of Being. Spirit is WHAT He is. This is the problem with many OPs that don't understand the distinctions between Father, Son and Holy Ghost AND the difference between PERSON and NATURE

Now for the verses

Rom 8:16 The Spirit itself beareth witness with our spirit, that we are the children of God:

Rom 8:26 Likewise the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered.

The greek pronouns are NEUTER. The only reason why later translations translate it Himself is to support the third person of the Trinity