...Combining Mathew 28:19 & Acts 2:38.....

Originally Posted by JTULLOCK

You can not truthfully say that after reading Matthew 28:19 that Jesus' word are of no affect. I am sure that you have read the entire chapter of Matthew 28. In that chapter it says Jesus was talking to the 12 and told them how to minister. Now if Jesus actually meant 'go baptize everyone in my name' then he would have said it. IMO. I believe that Acts 2:38 gives a biblical mode of baptism. I have no trouble with some using both scriptures. The reason it is not compromise is that Jesus comanded it to be done. The 12 went and administered this in Jesus name, which is correct because Jesus is the 'name' of the F,S,and HG. It is just like someone intoducing me as a father, son, friend, brother, etc, but I am still Justin. That is how I see it.

Jesus words are not of no effect, however many people misapply his words in ways that he never intended.

Jesus spoke these words, and the scripture says that he opened their understanding. He didn't want them to get it wrong. When the Apostles left his moment, and then entered into Acts 2, their understanding was clear with what Jesus required, and they applied what they had been taught by baptizing in the name of Jesus Christ.

If the Apostles applied Jesus words in this way, who are we to apply them any differently? The only reason to do so would be to connect yourself to trinitarian false doctrine, and try to mix false ideology with the true. This never works, and God clearly frowns upon such attempts through the Epistles and to the Seven Churches of Revelation.