The Holy Ghost Speaking Thru Us? Tongues

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Azzan

Did they say why?

ooops, I see I already said they were afraid. I'd have to tell the whole story and I don't recall the details.

[notofworks]

Originally Posted by BeenThinkin

When a person Speaks in Tongues is that the Holy Ghost (God) doing the speaking or is it the human being doing the speaking?

What I want someone to answer "is tongues God speaking through us!" Ac 2:4* And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.

Now my reason for asking this.

Paul spoke about tongues in the church! I Cor 14:28* But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.

Now if God knows all things, (and He does), He would know that there was no interpreter present, so why would He move on the individual to speak in tongues?

Just seems like to me that if it's a God thing, (and I do not mean that in a negative way), God would know who was present and would not give tongues in the case of no interpreter!

Does that make any sense? Now there are some of you that I would rather you didn't answer that last question. lol

Again, if God knows there is no interpreter present why would He move on that individual?

Just Been Thinkin

From the looks of all the Admin stop signs I've seen the last couple of days, accompanied by rules reminders, I may should refrain from participating in this thread!

[Azzan]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

ooops, I see I already said they were afraid. I'd have to tell the whole story and I don't recall the details.

Ok, was curious.

[BeenThinkin]

Originally Posted by notofworks

From the looks of all the Admin stop signs I've seen the last couple of days, accompanied by rules reminders, I may should refrain from participating in this thread!

Awe come on! You can survive another one can't you! Are you indicating that your answer might not be very "Apostolic?"

But really, why would Paul write this? Doesn't it sound redundant if God knows who is there for Him to go ahead and move on someone? I never thought of it as just being someone that was there that was afraid to answer! Maybe so!?

Been Thinkin

[Socialite]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

God uses our voice. It is the same thing, IMO, as being instruments of his peace. He uses us to do His work in the Kingdom.

The only way I think that I can interpret I Cor 14:28 is that, having been used in that gift, I can tell the difference - within myself - whether what I am feeling is going to be tongues and interpretation or just the Spirit moving on me strongly to encourage or strengthen me. Therefore, I would not respond in such as way as to come across as bringing forth tongues requiring an interpretation.

I think what complicates this is that when the 120 received the baptism of the Spirit in the Upper Room, we know that there tongues were known by others. This pattern evidently didn't continue, but we have nothing that says their experience was unique.

Also, regarding the post - it's still confounding that tongues are used either way. If God has given prophecy to the Church, then why tongues and interpretation when they are the same thing, except someone says something in tongues first?

These are just open and honest q's from our poster, which I completely identify with.

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by Socialite

I think what complicates this is that when the 120 received the baptism of the Spirit in the Upper Room, we know that there tongues were known by others. This pattern evidently didn't continue, but we have nothing that says their experience was unique.

Also, regarding the post - it's still confounding that tongues are used either way. If God has given prophecy to the Church, then why tongues and interpretation when they are the same thing, except someone says something in tongues first?

These are just open and honest q's from our poster, which I completely identify with.

Finding a good answer is a bit difficult but not entirely out of our reach. Being satisfied with pat answers that don't really address the question at hand is much easier. But that is the way it is with most things.

One problem is that the Bible doesn't make any difference between what we have come to call "xenolalia" and "glossolalia." Both phenomena are simply called "other tongues" (ἕτερος γλῶσσα). The concept of "xeno" (foreign) is considered to always be implied here.

The first step in considering this is probably asking, "Does the Holy Ghost speak through us in tongues?" Some will ask for proof that the contemporary phenomenon seen in Pentecostal churches is the same thing as Acts 2:4. This is something that I have never been able to prove.

The solace I find in the Bible however, is that Paul's discussion of tongues in 1 Corinthians appears to accept this phenomena on terms that are consistent with our contemporary experience. And, given the fact that the author of Acts, Luke, was a close associate of Paul's, I think that there is just something that we're missing here.

[Socialite]

Originally Posted by pelathais

Finding a good answer is a bit difficult but not entirely out of our reach. Being satisfied with pat answers that don't really address the question at hand is much easier. But that is the way it is with most things.

One problem is that the Bible doesn't make any difference between what we have come to call "xenolalia" and "glossolalia." Both phenomena are simply called "other tongues" (ἕτερος γλῶσσα). The concept of "xeno" (foreign) is considered to always be implied here.

The first step in considering this is probably asking, "Does the Holy Ghost speak through us in tongues?" Some will ask for proof that the contemporary phenomenon seen in Pentecostal churches is the same thing as Acts 2:4. This is something that I have never been able to prove.

The solace I find in the Bible however, is that Paul's discussion of tongues in 1 Corinthians appears to accept this phenomena on terms that are consistent with our contemporary experience. And, given the fact that the author of Acts, Luke, was a close associate of Paul's, I think that there is just something that we're missing here.

I guess what's difficult is how Pentecostals (some of them) make a distinction between evidentiary tongues and the "Gift of Tongues." Hard to make that point in scripture and to really understand it. It would seem the Upper Room experienced the Gift of Tongues (tongues understood by others declaring God -- supernatural phenom).

I definitely accept that it's a reality in me, and I speak in tongues. It's just hard to understand.

[BeenThinkin]

Originally Posted by pelathais

Finding a good answer is a bit difficult but not entirely out of our reach. Being satisfied with pat answers that don't really address the question at hand is much easier. But that is the way it is with most things.

One problem is that the Bible doesn't make any difference between what we have come to call "xenolalia" and "glossolalia." Both phenomena are simply called "other tongues" (ἕτερος γλῶσσα). The concept of "xeno" (foreign) is considered to always be implied here.

The first step in considering this is probably asking, "Does the Holy Ghost speak through us in tongues?" Some will ask for proof that the contemporary phenomenon seen in Pentecostal churches is the same thing as Acts 2:4. This is something that I have never been able to prove.

The solace I find in the Bible however, is that Paul's discussion of tongues in 1 Corinthians appears to accept this phenomena on terms that are consistent with our contemporary experience. And, given the fact that the author of Acts, Luke, was a close associate of Paul's, I think that there is just something that we're missing here.

Thanks for your learned response, as always! And I'm not just looking for something to argue about, especially with you. Just couldn't reason in my mind, if the tongues were from God, and God knows all things, why He would give tongues, (for interpretation) if there was no interpreter present? Is there scripture to back up this reasoning?

Been Thinkin (And sometimes it hurts!)