End Time Army of Women Preachers Psalms 68:11

[n david]

5 more minutes....

[Abiding Now]

Originally Posted by Sister Alvear

Very true...we chose who we buddy up with...we can love everyone but we do not have to be best buddies with everyone...

Sister, I have zero problem with what you do and have heard you and your husband "speak". What is really amazing to me are the women that CLAIM to be women preachers that haven't really preached in a pulpit in years, if ever. Unlike them, you have made your own way, not waiting on a man to approve you and give you a pulpit to preach.

[KeptByTheWord]

Originally Posted by rdp

Again, entirely wrong. The Greek noun for "man" (ἀνδρός) simply means "male," as indicated here in the actual lexical definition: http://biblehub.com/greek/435.htmThis is why this noun is translated most often as simply "man" & rarely ever "husband" (& even then only when sufficient textual indicators are present - which they are not in I Tim. 2). This noun is translated as "husband" a mere 52 times (& only because of possessive markings), & as simply "man" (or variables thereof) 158 times.

Ok, so I clicked on the link you provided, and this is what it says:
anér: a man
Original Word: ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: anér
Phonetic Spelling: (an'-ayr)
Short Definition: a male human being, a man
Definition: a male human being; a man, husband.

Right there in bold is the word husband. Now I know that you say that in the context that Paul couldn't possibly be talking about a husband. Well, that's your opinion. Let's look at that scripture in context again.

8 I will therefore that men pray every where, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting.
9 In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;
10 But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works.
11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.

This is my opinion too, because... no one of us can know exactly the mind of Paul as he was writing, but in looking at this verse from the context of the passage it was found in, Paul is addressing the husband/wife issue here, and which is why the word HUSBAND could certainly be used here (using your source as the reference for husband), as he mentions that the woman (wife) would be saved in childbearing. A single woman, or widow is not childbearing, a wife would be the only one childbearing. So, the context IS husband/wife.

Now, I realize that with all your study of Greek, that it is possible that "much learning hath made you mad" (really, I believe you are sincere, and don't hold that against you). However, you have your opinion about the verse, which is fine. We have ours. Opinions may never meet. But, you continue to choose to acknowledge the fact that Paul taught a woman can prophesy in the church, but get hung up on the "remain silent in church", but you have NEVER SAID how that can be possible.

I have stated that it is possible when a wife is in submission to her husband, that being under his authority, if she has been given a word from the Lord, she can speak.

Originally Posted by rdp

And, of course women should go win the lost, but no women should be alone with another man in doing so. Rather the biblical example is for a Aquila & Priscilla to reach for a Apollos - which is NOT the context of I Tim. 2 nor I Cor. 14. You are meshing contexts (a sure sign of poor hermeneutic skills) & committing the logical fallacy known as a "Illegitimate Totality Transfer," in which you illegitimately transfer one meaning or context onto another meaning or context that are discussing two entirely separate topics. We have explained this over & over & over & over .

You are looking at the forest without seeing the trees. Jesus talked ALONE to the Samaritan woman. Why would he do that? How awful, for a MAN to be ALONE with a woman. And then, after He talked to her ALONE, what did she do?

Let's read the verse and see what she did:

John 4
27 And upon this came his disciples, and marvelled that he talked with the woman: yet no man said, What seekest thou? or, Why talkest thou with her?

28 The woman then left her waterpot, and went her way into the city, and saith to the men,

29 Come, see a man, which told me all things that ever I did: is not this the Christ?

30 Then they went out of the city, and came unto him.

39 And many of the Samaritans of that city believed on him for the saying of the woman, which testified, He told me all that ever I did.

You see, Jesus talked with the Samaritan lady, alone, while his disciples were off buying food. Then, the Samaritan women, went and told the MEN to come and see a man who told me all the things I ever did.

And you know what... many of the Samaritans of that city believed for the saying of the woman.

She was the FIRST WOMAN EVANGELIST Jesus sent... and a very effective one at that.

God Bless you Bro. RDP... but I feel sorry for you, that you would never accept a woman who has been sent by God to preach the gospel. If this woman had listened to the disciples, who were aghast that Jesus would talk to this woman alone, none of those Samaritans would have heard the word of God.

To obey GOD is better than to obey the traditions of men.

[Abiding Now]

Originally Posted by KeptByTheWord

Ok, so I clicked on the link you provided, and this is what it says:
anér: a man
Original Word: ἀνήρ, ἀνδρός, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: anér
Phonetic Spelling: (an'-ayr)
Short Definition: a male human being, a man
Definition: a male human being; a man, husband.

Right there in bold is the word husband. Now I know that you say that in the context that Paul couldn't possibly be talking about a husband. Well, that's your opinion. Let's look at that scripture in context again.

8 I will therefore that men pray every where, lifting up holy hands, without wrath and doubting.
9 In like manner also, that women adorn themselves in modest apparel, with shamefacedness and sobriety; not with broided hair, or gold, or pearls, or costly array;
10 But (which becometh women professing godliness) with good works.
11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
15 Notwithstanding she shall be saved in childbearing, if they continue in faith and charity and holiness with sobriety.

This is my opinion too, because... no one of us can know exactly the mind of Paul as he was writing, but in looking at this verse from the context of the passage it was found in, Paul is addressing the husband/wife issue here, and which is why the word HUSBAND could certainly be used here (using your source as the reference for husband), as he mentions that the woman (wife) would be saved in childbearing. A single woman, or widow is not childbearing, a wife would be the only one childbearing. So, the context IS husband/wife.

Now, I realize that with all your study of Greek, that it is possible that "much learning hath made you mad" (really, I believe you are sincere, and don't hold that against you). However, you have your opinion about the verse, which is fine. We have ours. Opinions may never meet. But, you continue to choose to acknowledge the fact that Paul taught a woman can prophesy in the church, but get hung up on the "remain silent in church", but you have NEVER SAID how that can be possible.

I have stated that it is possible when a wife is in submission to her husband, that being under his authority, if she has been given a word from the Lord, she can speak.



You are looking at the forest without seeing the trees. Jesus talked ALONE to the Samaritan woman. Why would he do that? How awful, for a MAN to be ALONE with a woman. And then, after He talked to her ALONE, what did she do?

Let's read the verse and see what she did:

John 4
27 And upon this came his disciples, and marvelled that he talked with the woman: yet no man said, What seekest thou? or, Why talkest thou with her?

28 The woman then left her waterpot, and went her way into the city, and saith to the men,

29 Come, see a man, which told me all things that ever I did: is not this the Christ?

30 Then they went out of the city, and came unto him.

39 And many of the Samaritans of that city believed on him for the saying of the woman, which testified, He told me all that ever I did.

You see, Jesus talked with the Samaritan lady, alone, while his disciples were off buying food. Then, the Samaritan women, went and told the MEN to come and see a man who told me all the things I ever did.

And you know what... many of the Samaritans of that city believed for the saying of the woman.

She was the FIRST WOMAN EVANGELIST Jesus sent... and a very effective one at that.

God Bless you Bro. RDP... but I feel sorry for you, that you would never accept a woman who has been sent by God to preach the gospel. If this woman had listened to the disciples, who were aghast that Jesus would talk to this woman alone, none of those Samaritans would have heard the word of God.

To obey GOD is better than to obey the traditions of men.

Did the Samaritan woman really "preach" (pulpit, Bible, notes) or was she giving her personal testimony in "witnessing"?

[n david]

Originally Posted by Abiding Now

Did the Samaritan woman really "preach" (pulpit, Bible, notes) or was she giving her personal testimony in "witnessing"?

She preached to the men in a house church.

[Sister Alvear]

Just got in from the doctor...and have just a minute...no I personally do not believe the Samaritan lady was a preacher however she did what few preachers have ever done! Hats off to the unknown women who went and brought a people to see Jesus....

She no doubt was well known in her city and I can see her in my minds eye, tunning through the cobblestone streets saying to to the top of her voice...COME SEE A MAN.... OH! for more like her....

[Sister Alvear]

And if the womam is going to be saved in child bearing I would hope the child would belong to her husband...

[Sister Alvear]

and once again...for our dear brother..
Paul was not teaching that women in general are to submit to men in general (Col 3:18). Paul was speaking about a wife not taking by force the leadership role over her husband.
It would be impossible for a woman to submit to every man...that would be total confusion. How could a woman submit to every man? There is balance in everything.

I submit to my husband...that is what the bible teaches me to do.

We all know that a woman is not to rule her husband...
That is the point Paul was specifying, that a woman should not "usurp authority over the man" (1Ti 2:12,} . This singles out an individual man, not mankind. It refers to a wife not being her husband's boss. Paul was saying that a wife is to let the husband take the leadership role in the church (Eph 5:22-24). She is to let her husband speak.

The word "usurp" in the next verse further strengthens this interpretation. "Usurp" means, "to seize and hold...by force or without legal authority" (American Heritage Dictionary). Paul was talking against a woman lording over her husband. We've all seen boisterous women with little mousy husbands. That's what Paul was speaking against.

This is similar to what Paul went on to say about the men in the next chapter. He told Timothy not to make a man a bishop who couldn't rule his own house. Likewise, he was saying that a woman should not speak in the church if she's trying to usurp her husband's authority. If a man's home isn't in order, he shouldn't minister, and if a woman's husband isn't in agreement with her saying something, she should be quiet.

The reason for Paul's instruction about the wife keeping quiet was to keep her from usurping authority over her husband. This does not forbid women to speak in the church if their husbands are in agreement.

Paul spoke of women praying and prophesying in the church services (1Co 11:5). Priscilla instructed Apollos (Ac 18:26), and Paul instructed the older women to teach the younger women (Tit 2:3-4). It appears that Paul did not forbid women to teach under appropriate circumstances.

In 1Ti 2:13-15, Paul continued his argument, using Adam and Eve as an example of a husband-and-wife relationship. This is not a "men are superior to women" passage of Scripture but a "husbands are the head of their wives" (Eph 5:23) passage.

[Sister Alvear]

and really I do not think she will be saved in childbearing refers to women in general but refere to Mary...but that is just a personal opinion....just for something for us to think about...

[KeptByTheWord]

Originally Posted by Abiding Now

Did the Samaritan woman really "preach" (pulpit, Bible, notes) or was she giving her personal testimony in "witnessing"?

There was no such thing as a pulpit then, and of course, no Bible either (only the Torah).