Mark of the beast idea

[shag]

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[Sean]

Originally Posted by Bowas

The word "all" puts a limit on to who it can be. If in Matt it is positively identified as Jerusalem is guilty of "all" then that would be the identity of the Mystery, Babylon the great that too is guilty of "all." Cannot have more than one guilty of "all," as Mike Blume has shown. In short, "all" says it all.

Is Jerusalem guilty of everything that happened after 70ad?

The "all" that you speak of is up until the time of Christ. Thats when Jesus spoke those words in Matt....Mat 23:35 That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar.(it ends with the slaying of Zacharias)


Revelation speaks of the Whore that is during the Church Age. This Whore has martyred an enormous amount of saints in Rev. 6 and 7. They are praying for veangeance and the Lord delivers in Chapter 18.

Rome slaughtered millions and the Jews slaughtered a few. Jerusalem was destroyed and the Jews dispersed for the few, but Rome will be destroyed and completely uninhabitable for the slaughter and deception of multitudes.

Think about what I am saying for just a few minutes, then you can go back to what you want to think.



2 different entities.

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Sean

[COLOR="Red"]Is Jerusalem guilty of everything that happened after 70ad?

Rev 18:24 does NOT imply AFTER any certain period. IT JUST SAYS ALL. All means every bit of blood shed. Again, it doesn't work, Sean. At best Rome would have been the one who shed blood SINCE AD70, but not simply the city that shed ALL THE BLOOD.

[Bowas]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Amen.

Right!

Sean. You said,..."Both Jerusalem and Rome share in the blood of the prophets..."

Another point for your consideration.
Both Matt and Rev use "all," which we have dicussed, but you think it to mean something other than in the singular and to include another. Why then did not Jesus say something other than "all", such as "they" or "them" or "both" or something to show us "all" was not meant for a single indentity.
Could have said, "they both are guilty..."
Fact is, only one can be guilty of all, be it Jerusalem or Rome, but only one.

[Bowas]

Originally Posted by mfblume

Amen.

Originally Posted by Sean

Is Jerusalem guilty of everything that happened after 70ad?

The "all" that you speak of is up until the time of Christ. Thats when Jesus spoke those words in Matt....Mat 23:35 That upon you may come all the righteous blood shed upon the earth, from the blood of righteous Abel unto the blood of Zacharias son of Barachias, whom ye slew between the temple and the altar.(it ends with the slaying of Zacharias)


Revelation speaks of the Whore that is during the Church Age. This Whore has martyred an enormous amount of saints in Rev. 6 and 7. They are praying for veangeance and the Lord delivers in Chapter 18.

Rome slaughtered millions and the Jews slaughtered a few. Jerusalem was destroyed and the Jews dispersed for the few, but Rome will be destroyed and completely uninhabitable for the slaughter and deception of multitudes.

Think about what I am saying for just a few minutes, then you can go back to what you want to think.



2 different entities.

I thought about it for a few minutes and there still is not these two entities you speak of. I think you are reading more into what is being presented in the scriptures than what is intended. The judgments was on the woman (her/harlot/Jerusalem/Babylon) that cheated on and rejected and in fact killed her husband. That is to whom the destruction is directed at.

[Sean]

Thats what I thought. Thats fine. You needed to see the futurist side to make your call. Im glad you asked though....God bless.

[Sean]

I guess you must just believe that Jerusalem of old is responsible for the slaughter of every saint after 70 ad if ALL means ALL....

[mfblume]

Originally Posted by Sean

I guess you must just believe that Jerusalem of old is responsible for the slaughter of every saint after 70 ad if ALL means ALL....

No one said anything about AFTER. the fact remains that if one entity is accused of ALL blood guilt at ANY GIVEN TIME, no other entity can ever ever be said to be guilty of ALL before or after. It's simple logic. At any given, time as soon as someone is guilty of ALL of something, no one later can be guilty of ALL of the same thing. Only part.

[Sean]

Mike, you guys are saying all means all. There are posts on the internet that say preterism is antisemitic. I now see how they get that. You guys are inferring that ALL of the martyred saints are on the hands of the Jews of old that crucified Jesus...Hitler used that.

This has gone interesting now. Since you guys reject Rev. 18 as being another entity. The Jews are utterly destroyed for the multitude of martyrs of Rev 6 and 7.

[Sean]

My position is that the City of Rev. 18 is responsible for the persecution and slaughter of the saints of Rev 6 and 7....