Leviticus 27:31 - 5%

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by pelathais

No, under the OT Law, one needn't "turn it into cash" and then pay with coin (the equivalent of cash) at the Temple in Jerusalem (Leviticus 27:10). Though, verse 10 appears to be referring to swapping one animal for the other, and so forth. Still, in the OT, tithes were generally paid "in kind." That is, from whatever one reaped or harvested, a tenth was separated as "holy" and presented to the Levites (not always at Jerusalem).

The animal sacrifices were later to be all done at Jerusalem, though even this wasn't always observed and would often prove to be too impractical for many folks.

But back to your question, the tithe was paid "in kind" and the "fifth part" that was added was paid "in kind" as well, though obviously everything was open to barter and negotiation to achieve a practical result.

Thanks, Pel!

So, you are saying that how I read Lev. 27:31 is correct? Someone had taken some of their tithe for personal use and needed to pay it back two-fold? Except, I was originally wrong on the percentage. It's 20% and not 5%.

Originally Posted by pelathais

The "fifth part" is 20% and not 5%. 20% is a fifth of 100%.

And yes, under the OT Law, any tithe that was "redeemed" for personal use was to be restored to the Levitical caste with 20% interest.

:thumpsup

[Digging4Truth]

Originally Posted by Digging4Truth

First... agreed on the 20%.

Second... where do you garner your interpretation above from?

So... a scripture that says nothing more than that you should add a fifth part if you redeem the tithe (produce, animals etc) informs you that this was a clause inserted by God where a person could sell the tithe and use it for personal use but they would need to kick in an extra 20% for doing so.

Now THAT... sounds like usury to a brother... which is forbidden by God... executed upon a brother by God.

I see where you get the fifth part from. But where do you get that this is referring to selling ones tithe for personal use?

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by Digging4Truth

So... a scripture that says nothing more than that you should add a fifth part if you redeem the tithe (produce, animals etc) informs you that this was a clause inserted by God where a person could sell the tithe and use it for personal use but they would need to kick in an extra 20% for doing so.

Now THAT... sounds like usury to a brother... which is forbidden by God... executed upon a brother by God.

I see where you get the fifth part from. But where do you get that this is referring to selling ones tithe for personal use?

The reason I read it that way is because when it says, "And if a man will at all redeem ought/part of his tithes....."

It appears to be saying he did something with the tithes, had to pay it back, and he would add a fifth on top of that. Of course, I had 5% in mind and didn't figure it properly.

That is why I said it almost seems like usury.

So, if he has to have it valued, as you and Prax stated, what scripture supports that.

[pelathais]

Originally Posted by Pressing-On

The reason I read it that way is because when it says, "And if a man will at all redeem ought/part of his tithes....."

It appears to be saying he did something with the tithes, had to pay it back, and he would add a fifth on top of that. Of course, I had 5% in mind and didn't figure it properly.

That is why I said it almost seems like usury.

So, if he has to have it valued, as you and Prax stated, what scripture supports that.

Leviticus 27:13-31

[Pressing-On]

Originally Posted by pelathais

Leviticus 27:13-31

Not ignoring you, Pel. I realize I need to study more than chapter 27.